Q&A Hero

Q: The ____________________ hemisphere appears to be specialized for the process of analysis, favoring discrete, sequential, rapidly changing information.

Q: Auditory information presented to the right ear is processed predominantly by the ____________________ hemisphere.

Q: Language function in the majority of individuals is located in the ____________________ hemisphere of the brain.

Q: The ____________________ association area (anterior to Brodmann area 6) is involved with integration of information in preparation for the motor act, as well as higher-level cognitive processes.

Q: The ____________________ association area includes regions of the parahippocampal gyrus and temporal pole (temporal lobe), cingulate gyri (parietal and frontal lobes), and orbital surfaces (inferior frontal lobe).

Q: The ____________________ association area includes portions of the temporal, parietal, and occipital lobes (Brodmann areas 39, 40, and portions of 19, 21, 22, and 37), and receives input from auditory, visual, and somatosensory regions, permitting the integration of this information into language function.

Q: ____________________ dysarthria is characterized by paucity of movement, such as that seen in Parkinson's disease.

Q: Tics, tremors, athetosis, and dystonia are all termed ____________________.

Q: ____________________ dysarthria is characterized by extraneous, involuntary movement of speech musculature, in addition to movement produced voluntarily.

Q: ____________________ dysarthria arises from damage to the cerebellum or to the brainstem vestibular nuclei, or both.

Q: ____________________ refers to increased reflexive response.

Q: ____________________ refers to increased muscle tone.

Q: ____________________ dysarthria arises from bilateral damage to upper motor neurons of the pyramidal (direct) and extrapyramidal (indirect) motor pathways.

Q: ____________________ refers to low muscle tone.

Q: ____________________ dysarthria arises from damage to lower motor neurons or their cell bodies.

Q: ____________________ is a speech disorder arising from paralysis, muscular weakness, and discoordination of speech musculature.

Q: The ____________________ area is found in the medial portion of Brodmann area 6, and is involved in speech initiation.

Q: Brodmann area number ____________________ is the premotor region.

Q: Brodmann areas 4 and part of 6 make up the ____________________ gyrus of the cerebrum.

Q: The posterior portion of Brodmann area 22 is termed ____________________ area.

Q: The primary reception area for auditory information is Brodmann number ____________________.

Q: The primary reception area for somatic sense is the ____________________ gyrus.

Q: The secondary processing area for vision is Brodmann area number ____________________.

Q: Brodmann area number ____________________ is the primary reception area for vision.

Q: The primary reception area for ____________________ is within the calcarine fissure.

Q: The primary reception area for vision is within the ____________________ fissure of the occipital lobe.

Q: Theories of ____________________ state that attempts to localize function are generally fruitless and that the brain functions as a whole.

Q: _________________________ transduce information concerning tension placed on tendons.

Q: ____________________ sensors transduce information about muscle length.

Q: ____________________ fibers are muscle fibers of the muscle spindle.

Q: ____________________-twitch muscle fibers are involved in fine and rapid motor function.

Q: ____________________-twitch muscle fibers are involved in maintenance of posture.

Q: Acetylcholine is a ____________________.

Q: A motor unit consists of a motor neuron, its axon, and the ____________________ it innervates.

Q: A ____________________ unit consists of a motor neuron, its axon, and the muscle fibers it innervates.

Q: The point of communication between nerve and muscle is the ____________________.

Q: Neurotransmitter substance is released into the ____________________.

Q: ____________________ is a substance that is released from the terminal (end) button of an axon, and causes either excitation or inhibition of another neuron or excitation of a muscle fiber.

Q: The nodes of Ranvier of the myelinated axon support ____________________ conduction.

Q: The ____________________ of the myelinated axon support saltatory conduction.

Q: The ____________________ period is a period during which the membrane may be stimulated to excitation again, but only with greater than typical stimulation.

Q: The ____________________ period is the time during which the cell membrane cannot be stimulated to depolarize.

Q: A(n) ____________________ potential is a change in electrical potential that occurs when the cell membrane is stimulated adequately to permit ion exchange between intra- and extracellular spaces.

Q: A potential difference of 70 mV between the intracellular and interstitial spaces is found at ____________________ potential.

Q: ____________________ proteins open when they receive adequate electrical stimulation.

Q: ____________________ relates to the ease with which ions may pass through a membrane.

Q: ____________________ are atoms that have either lost or gained an electron (negative particle), causing them to acquire either a positive or a negative charge.

Q: A major difference between slow- and fast-twitch fibers is that a. one neuron may innervate thousands of slow-twitch fibers. b. one neuron may innervate as few as 10 fast-twitch fibers. c. slow-twitch fibers are important for sustained contraction. d. all of the above.

Q: Slow-twitch muscle fibers a. remain activated up to five times longer than fast-twitch muscles. b. consist mostly of myosin. c. do not respond to calcium released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. all of the above.

Q: For fine movement, a. only a limited number of muscle fibers need be recruited. b. typically fast-twitch fibers will be recruited. c. a & b d. none of the above.

Q: An action potential at the motor end plate a. results from the activation of troponin. b. causes calcium to be released into the environment of muscle fibers. c. a & b d. none of the above.

Q: In the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle, a. acetylcholine (ACH) activates muscle function. b. gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) activates muscle function. c. dopamine (DA) activates muscle function. d. none of the above.

Q: Myelinated fibers conduct the wave of depolarization more rapidly than demyelinated fibers a. because the lipids that make up myelin are hydrophobic in nature. b. primarily due to saltatory conduction. c. because myelin serves as an electrical conductor. d. because depolarization occurs before hyperpolarization.

Q: Because an action potential always results in the same neural response, a. the neuron can only fire during inhibition. b. the neuron cannot be used to differentiate stimuli. c. the neuron is capable of representing differences in input only through rate of response. d. none of the above.

Q: Inhibition causes a. depolarization. b. hyperpolarization. c. repolarization. d. none of the above.

Q: Excitation causes a. depolarization. b. hyperpolarization. c. repolarization. d. none of the above.

Q: IPSP refers to a. a potential that is excitatory in nature. b. use of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACH). c. an inhibitory potential. d. an input potential.

Q: EPSP refers to a. excitatory presummative potential. b. excitatory perisynaptic potential. c. excitatory presynaptic potential. d. excitatory postsynaptic potential.

Q: Neurotransmitter substance a. leaves the presynaptic neuron, activates ion channels, and enters the postsynaptic neuron. b. leaves the presynaptic neuron, activates ion channels, and then is reabsorbed into the presynaptic neuron. c. leaves the presynaptic neuron, activates ion channels, and then is absorbed into the lymphatic system. d. leaves the postsynaptic neuron, activates ion channels, and then is absorbed into the presynaptic neuron.

Q: A neuron can fire approximately once every a. 1 ms. b. 10 ms. c. 100 ms. d. 1,000 ms.

Q: In biological systems, voltage is the product of a. ion movement. b. myelin. c. Schwann cells. d. the neurotransmitter.

Q: An action potential causes a. synaptic vesicles to migrate to the synaptic membrane. b. neurotransmitter to be released into the synaptic cleft. c. a & b d. none of the above.

Q: The period following depolarization of a neuron during which a neuron can fire, but requires a higher level of stimulation than required for the initial depolarization, is the a. primary refractory period. b. secondary refractory period. c. absolutely (absolute) refractory period. d. relatively (relative) refractory period.

Q: The period following depolarization when a neuron cannot fire is termed the a. absolutely (absolute) refractory period. b. relatively (relative) refractory period. c. hypostyle (ascending) refractory period. d. adductory (closing) refractory period.

Q: An action potential is a. the return to baseline voltage that occurs following depolarization. b. a change in electrical potential that occurs when the cell membrane is stimulated adequately to permit ion exchange between intra- and extracellular spaces. c. the threshold phenomenon associated with movement in muscle. d. none of the above.

Q: Active cellular transport a. is required to adjust the ion balance between intra- and extracellular environments. b. involves the use of sodium-potassium pumps. c. moves sodium out of the cell. d. all of the above.

Q: Adenosine triphosphate is a direct product of a. the synaptic dyad. b. gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA). c. cellular mitochondria. d. deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

Q: The molecular fuel for active transport is a. adenosine triphosphate (ATP). b. monosodium glutamate (MSG). c. lysergic acid diethylamine (LSD). d. acetylcholinesterase (ACHE).

Q: Voltage-sensitive proteins a. are responsive to presence of voltage in their environment. b. change shape and open in the presence of voltage in their environment. c. a & b d. none of the above.

Q: Electroencephalographic (EEG) recordings are actually records of a. motor end plates. b. action potentials. c. K+ ions. d. none of the above.

Q: Communication between two neurons occurs at the a. mitochondria. b. protein shell. c. nodes of Ranvier. d. synapse.

Q: The basic function of a neuron is to a. transmit nutrients. b. maintain dynamic equilibrium between glial cells and potassium ions. c. communicate. d. none of the above.

Q: Match each cranial nerve to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. a. I olfactory b. II ophthalmic (optic) c. III oculomotor d. IV trochlear e. V trigeminal f. VI abducens g. VII facial h. VIII vestibulocochlear i. IX glossopharyngeal j. X vagus k. XI accessory l. XII hypoglossal. Mediates taste, anterior two-thirds of tongue

Q: The term for a group of nerve cells in the peripheral nervous system is a. fasciculus. b. ganglion. c. colliculus. d. nucleus.

Q: The term for a group of nerve cells in the central nervous system is a. ganglion. b. nucleus. c. colliculus. d. fasciculus.

Q: The structure that is responsible for coordination is the a. brainstem. b. cerebrum. c. cerebellum. d. corpus callosum.

Q: Sensory information will not reach consciousness if it does not reach the a. spinal cord. b. brainstem. c. cerebellum. d. cerebrum.

Q: Commands for voluntary functions originate in the a. spinal cord. b. brainstem. c. cerebellum. d. cerebrum.

Q: Each neuron interacts with approximately how many other neurons? a. 2 b. 20 c. 200 d. 2,000

Q: Approximately how many neurons are there in the human body? a. 100,000 b. 100,000,000 c. 100,000,000,000 d. 100,000,000,000,000