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Q: Slow-twitch muscle fibers a. remain activated up to five times longer than fast-twitch muscles. b. consist mostly of myosin. c. do not respond to calcium released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. all of the above.
Q: For fine movement, a. only a limited number of muscle fibers need be recruited. b. typically fast-twitch fibers will be recruited. c. a & b d. none of the above.
Q: An action potential at the motor end plate a. results from the activation of troponin. b. causes calcium to be released into the environment of muscle fibers. c. a & b d. none of the above.
Q: In the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle, a. acetylcholine (ACH) activates muscle function. b. gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) activates muscle function. c. dopamine (DA) activates muscle function. d. none of the above.
Q: Myelinated fibers conduct the wave of depolarization more rapidly than demyelinated fibers a. because the lipids that make up myelin are hydrophobic in nature. b. primarily due to saltatory conduction. c. because myelin serves as an electrical conductor. d. because depolarization occurs before hyperpolarization.
Q: Brocas area is found in the ____________________ lobe.
Q: The ____________________ lobe of the cerebrum predominates in planning and initiation of voluntary motion.
Q: The ____________________ fissure separates the temporal lobe from the parietal and frontal lobes.
Q: The ____________________ divides the parietal and frontal lobes.
Q: Deep infoldings of the cortex are called ____________________.
Q: Infoldings of the cortex are called ____________________.
Q: Outfoldings of the cortex are called ____________________.
Q: The ____________________ fissure separates the left and right cerebral hemispheres.
Q: The third and fourth ventricles are connected by the ____________________.
Q: The ____________________ ventricle separates the right and left thalami.
Q: The lateral and third ventricles communicate via the ____________________ foramen of Monro.
Q: The ____________________ ventricles are horseshoe-shaped cavities of the cerebrum.
Q: Most of the cerebrospinal fluid arises from the ____________________ plexus of each lateral ventricle.
Q: ____________________ fluid arises from the ventricles of the brain.
Q: The ____________________ is a part of the dura mater that separates the cerebral hemispheres.
Q: The most superficial meningeal layer of the brain is the ____________________.
Q: The (cranial nerve and number) ____________________ provides motor innervation to the tongue.
Q: The (cranial nerve and number) ____________________ nerve provides motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
Q: The ____________________ nerve of the X cranial nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle.
Q: The ____________________ nerve of the X cranial nerve innervates adductors and the abductor of the vocal folds.
Q: The (cranial nerve and number) ____________________ provides motor innervation to the muscles of the larynx.
Q: ____________________ are support tissue within the nervous system.
Q: The term ____________________ refers to the medulla oblongata.
Q: The ____________________ includes the pons and cerebellum.
Q: The ____________________ is the midbrain of the brainstem.
Q: The ____________________ includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and optic tract.
Q: The ____________________ refers to the structures of olfaction.
Q: The term ____________________ refers to the extended or telescoped brain, and includes the cerebral hemispheres, the white matter immediately beneath it, the basal ganglia, and the olfactory tract.
Q: The ____________________ is also referred to as the rhombencephalon.
Q: The ____________________ is also referred to as the mesencephalon.
Q: The ____________________ is also referred to as the prosencephalon.
Q: The ____________________ system arises from the cerebral cortex and is responsible for the background tone and movement supporting the primary acts.
Q: The ____________________ system arises from the pyramidal cells of the motor strip of the cerebral cortex and is largely responsible for initiation of voluntary motor acts.
Q: The ____________________ nervous system involves those aspects of bodily function that are under conscious and voluntary control.
Q: Descending or motor pathways are referred to as ____________________.
Q: Match each structure or landmark to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. Basilar artery
Q: Ascending or sensory pathways are referred to as ____________________.
Q: Match each structure or landmark to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. Anterior cerebral artery
Q: Digestion is governed by the ____________________ nervous system.
Q: Match each structure or landmark to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. Anterior spinal artery
Q: The cranial nerves are part of the ____________________ nervous system.
Q: Match each structure or landmark to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Q: The area benefit of the middle ear transformer is approximately ____________________ dB.
Q: The minimum audible frequency for humans is considered to be approximately ____________________ Hz.
Q: The maximum audible frequency for humans is considered to be approximately ____________________ Hz.
Q: The audible range of frequency in humans spans approximately ____________________ octaves
Q: High-frequency sounds are localized by the superior olivary complex by means of the interaural ____________________ difference.
Q: Low-frequency sounds are localized by the superior olivary complex by means of interaural ____________________ difference.
Q: The primary brainstem site for processing localization of sound in space is the ____________________.
Q: The first brainstem nucleus of the auditory pathway is the ____________________.
Q: When the crossed-olivocochlear and uncrossed-olivocochlear bundles are stimulated, the firing rate of neurons innervated by them is (increased/reduced) ____________________ dramatically.
Q: A ____________________ histogram displays the point in the cycle of vibration at which firing occurs.
Q: ____________________ refers to the quality of a neurons response to the period of the stimulus.
Q: As intensity of a signal increases, the rate of firing of auditory nerve neurons (increases/decreases) ____________________.
Q: The (broader/sharper) ____________________ the tuning curve of an VIII nerve fiber is, the greater the frequency specificity of the basilar membrane.
Q: The ____________________ of a neuron is the frequency to which it responds best.
Q: Low spontaneous rate neurons have (low/high) ____________________ thresholds of stimulation.
Q: The ____________________ potential arises directly from stimulation of a large number of hair cells simultaneously, eliciting nearly simultaneous individual action potentials in the VIII nerve.
Q: The ____________________ potential is a sustained, direct-current (DC) shift in the endocochlear potential that occurs upon stimulation of the organ of Corti by sound.
Q: The ____________________ is an electrical potential that directly follows the input acoustic signal.
Q: The intracellular resting potential is about ____________________ mV.
Q: The endocochlear potential reflects an electrical potential difference between the ____________________ and the scala media.
Q: The endocochlear potential is approximately ____________________ mV.
Q: Match each term to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. a. sternothyroid b. sternohyoid c. thyrohyoid d. mylohyoid e. cricopharyngeus Closes upper esophagus
Q: Match each term to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. a. sternothyroid b. sternohyoid c. thyrohyoid d. mylohyoid e. cricopharyngeus Depresses hyoid
Q: Match each term to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. a. sternothyroid b. sternohyoid c. thyrohyoid d. mylohyoid e. cricopharyngeus Depresses larynx
Q: Match each term to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. a. sternothyroid b. sternohyoid c. thyrohyoid d. mylohyoid e. cricopharyngeus Elevates hyoid or depresses mandible
Q: Match each term to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. a. mylohyoid b. digastricus anterior c. digastricus posterior d. geniohyoid e. stylohyoid Arises from mastoid process; elevates and retracts larynx
Q: Match each term to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. a. mylohyoid b. digastricus anterior c. digastricus posterior d. geniohyoid e. stylohyoid Forms the floor of the mouth
Q: Match each term to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. a. mylohyoid b. digastricus anterior c. digastricus posterior d. geniohyoid e. stylohyoid Elevates and pulls larynx forward
Q: Match each term to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. a. mylohyoid b. digastricus anterior c. digastricus posterior d. geniohyoid e. stylohyoid Arises from mental spines of inner mandible
Q: Match each term to the correct descriptor. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. a. mylohyoid b. digastricus anterior c. digastricus posterior d. geniohyoid e. stylohyoid Sole function is to elevate and retract larynx
Q: Match the terms or descriptions to the muscle, landmark, or structure in the following figure. Arytenoid
Q: Match the terms or descriptions to the muscle, landmark, or structure in the following figure. Thyromuscularis
Q: Match the terms or descriptions to the muscle, landmark, or structure in the following figure. Thyrovocalis
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