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Q: If the tasks are very simple, the group is very large, and the time for decision is short, which of the following leadership styles works best?​ a. Authoritarian leadership style​ b. ​Democratic leadership style c. ​Laissez-faire leadership style d. ​The three-dimensional style

Q: There are five personality characteristics often referred to as the Big Five personality factors considered important in successful teams. Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five?​ a. ​Extroversion b. ​Agreeableness c. ​Emotional Stability d. ​Reflexivity

Q: Which of the following is a strategy suggested by the text for dealing with a group member exhibiting dysfunctional behaviors?​ a. ​Engage in direct eye contact b. ​Ask clarifying questions, such as Is that correct? so they feel heard. c. ​Don't give the dysfunctional member anything to do. d. ​Ask members to speak in a specific order to make sure that everyone gets a chance to participate.

Q: Listening from the speaker's viewpoint involves receiving, interpreting, and checking the speaker's perspective. This type of listening is known as:​ a. ​empathetic b. ​critical c. ​active d. ​passive

Q: This approach to leadership contends that leadership depends of leader-member relations, how clearly the task is structured, and the leader's power position.​ a. Situational contingency.​ b. ​Transformational. c. ​Normative decision. d. ​Servant leadership.

Q: This approach to leadership is a charismatic leadership style that inspires and motivates people to do more than they would normally do.​ a. ​Situational contingency. b. ​Transformational. c. ​Normative decision. d. ​Servant leadership.

Q: The trait theory of group leadership says that​ a. ​After a person has led a group, there are still some things he or she can do to achieve more complete success. b. ​There are certain roles that must be performed if a group is to be successful. c. ​There are certain qualities a person must have in order to become a successful leader. d. ​Psychological aspects of leadership must be considered when selecting a leader.

Q: The three-dimensional theory of leadership maintains that​ a. ​Certain roles must be performed if a group is to be successful. b. ​Leaders are likely to be trait-oriented, functionally rained, and inwardly motivated. c. ​Leaders should perform task and maintenance roles, and guard the group against nonfunctional members. d. ​Leaders can be classified as autocratic, democratic, and laissez-faire.

Q: According to the situational leadership approach, a good leader is flexible and can change styles when needed.​ a. True b. False

Q: It is a good idea to sit a dysfunctional group member as far away from the leader as possible.​ a. True b. False

Q: When Tara says, Scott, I get the feeling that you have something to say about Monica's proposal, she is playing a maintenance role.​ a. True b. False

Q: ​Research supports the trait approach to leadership. a. True b. False

Q: Research supports that transformational leaders are able to improve performance levels.​ a. True b. False

Q: Authoritarian leadership is more effective than democratic leadership when:​ a. ​The leader is powerful, the task is well defined and the relations are good. b. ​The leader is weak, the task is well defined and the relations are good. c. ​The leader is powerful, the task is well defined and the leader is disliked. d. ​The authoritarian leadership style is never effective.

Q: ​In democratic groups in which the members are committed and involved: a. ​The leader performs most of the task and maintenance functions. b. ​The leader performs most of the task functions. c. ​The leader performs most of the maintenance functions. d. ​The leadership functions are shared by the leader and the members.

Q: What are two things a group can do to decrease the chances that groupthink will negatively affect its decisions? What are at least two things a leader can do to keep from unduly influencing the team?​

Q: What are three important differences between face to face (FTF) teams and teams that operate with the help of computer-mediated communication (CMC)?​

Q: What are the three categories of groups generally used within an organization? Define and give an example of each.

Q: List the steps of the basic problem-solving procedure. Which if these steps, if any, can be skipped? Why or why not?​

Q: Describe the three main leadership styles laid out in the three-dimension theory of leadership.​

Q: Compare and contrast the trait and functional approaches to leadership. Which is a stronger approach, according to research?​

Q: How do the leader responsibilities differ from virtual to face-to-face meetings?​

Q: Describe the transformational leader and give an example of a known transformational leader to illustrate your answer. Why is ethics especially important to consider when evaluating a transformational leader?​

Q: To give all members a chance to participate and to minimize group pressure, the recommended method for generating ideas is​ a. ​Nominal group technique b. ​Brainstorming c. ​Panel d. ​Roundtable Discussion

Q: It's advisable to establish criteria before listing alternatives in all of the following situations EXCEPT:​ a. ​If the task is complex. b. ​If team members have a lot of problem solving experience. c. ​If the topic is emotional. d. ​If the topic involves value judgments.

Q: Effective teams​ a. ​Follow an organized, rigid procedure. b. ​Avoid overlapping or backtracking. c. Always move smoothly from step to step of the problem solving sequence. d. ​Accomplish their process in a cyclical manner.

Q: Once a team reaches a solution, it must​ a. ​Continue to meet periodically b. ​Follow up on implementation c. ​Appoint an implementation team d. ​Disband

Q: The basic problem solving procedure works best when:​ a. ​The leader is trained in the process b. ​The group is large c. ​The members are trained in the process. d. ​Both the leader and the members are trained in the process.

Q: The characteristics that define a small group or team are:​ a. Size, type of interaction, and action toward a common goal​ b. ​Attention, cooperation, and independence c. ​Size, independence, and action toward a common goal d. ​Cooperation, type of interaction, and action toward a common goal

Q: The idea that people choose to continue to be a part of a group when the rewards outweigh the costs.​ a. ​Learning groups b. ​Groupthink c. ​Social rewards theory d. ​Elaboration Likelihood Model

Q: What are the four pairs of questions in step two of the basic problem-solving procedure that are helpful to ask if the cause of a problem is unclear or unknown? What are two additional questions for each pair?​

Q: A major electronics firm holds various committee meetings to improve employee morale. However, upper management discovers that one group always delivers quick decisions, agrees with the leader's opinions, and does not thoroughly consider the feasibility of the solutions. This group most likely exhibits​ a. ​Poor leadership b. ​Low morale c. ​Groupthink d. ​Poor organization

Q: The reservations department of a major airline meets weekly to discuss ways to improve the sales quota. Whenever they meet, Sam (a new employee), is the only one to express a differing opinion. At first the leader just asked him not to rock the boat, but as time went on, the group began to ignore Sam and speak as though he had not said anything. This is a sign of what symptom of groupthink?​ a. ​Self-censorship. b. ​Rationalization. c. ​Illusion of unanimity. d. ​Direct pressure.

Q: Annie doesn't agree with her boss, but she is reluctant to speak against the proposal, because she doesn't want to be seen as putting her boss on the spot at the staff meeting. Annie decides not to say anything. This is a sign of what symptom of groupthink?​ a. ​Self-censorship. b. ​Shared stereotypes. c. ​Illusion of invulnerability. d. ​Rationalization.

Q: Which of the following meets the requirements for a small group?​ a. ​Four employees discussing ways to encourage the boss to give a Christmas bonus b. ​Three people sitting in an office waiting to be interviewed for a position. c. ​Five personal assistants typing papers for their boss. d. ​Four people discussing the weather while sitting on a park bench waiting for a bus.

Q: Which of the following is the most effectively worded question for use by a problem-solving group?​ a. ​What position should Zee Company take? toward noncompany use of its facilities? b. ​Should smoking on the job be allowed to continue? c. ​What are some suggestions for saving energy in our company? d. ​What can the union do to stop the unfair practice of merit pay?

Q: Which of the following must criteria are really operational in nature?​ a. ​The childcare facility selected must be independently owned. b. ​The childcare facility selected must have five years of experience in corporate daycare. c. ​The childcare facility selected must employ experienced teachers. d. ​Selection of the child care facility must be completed in one month.

Q: Conventional paper resumes are organized in one of three basic ways. What are they and when should each be used?​

Q: What are the three phases of an interview and what should happen in each phase?​

Q: Briefly discuss the two guidelines used to determine whether or not a question is lawful.​

Q: Group decisions are often less accurate than individual decisions.​ a. True b. False

Q: Teams participating in decision making with people from other parts of the world require additional effort because not all cultures view or solve problems in the same way.​ a. True b. False

Q: In effective brainstorming, only words of praise and encouragement should be allowed because negative comments usually put an end to creative thinking.​ a. True b. False

Q: In questions of fact, the group tries to assess the worth or desirability of some object, idea or person.​ a. True b. False

Q: The elaboration likelihood model explains that the peripheral route processing means people take time to thoroughly consider the argument.​ a. True b. False

Q: Compared to individual problem solving, with group problem solving:​ a. ​Less time is required. b. ​Hostility is increased. c. ​Productivity is increased. d. ​There is less personal satisfaction.

Q: In this kind of interview, the interviewer expects you to take most of the initiative and to give detailed and fairly long responses.​ a. ​Hostile or stress interview. b. ​Non-structured interview. c. ​Structured interview. d. ​Group interview.

Q: Small group communication works best when groups are no greater than:​ a. ​Eight people b. ​Twelve people c. ​Ten people d. Fifteen people

Q: According to research, employers prefer which type of resume?​ a. ​Functional b. ​Chronological c. ​Combination d. ​There is no employer preference.

Q: Which of the following is normally a lawful question to ask during an employment interview?​ a. ​When and where were you born? b. ​Have you ever been arrested? c. ​Are you a citizen of the United States? d. ​Do you own, rent, or lease your home?

Q: Which of the following is normally an unlawful question to ask during an employment interview?​ a. ​To what professional organizations do you belong? b. ​What personal qualities do you think would be helpful in working with people within our organization? c. ​Do you own your own car? d. ​If you were starting college all over again, what courses would you take?

Q: Which of the following is not a suggestion for interviewees given by the text?​ a. ​Speak quietly and in a muted tone b. ​Focus on eye contact, appearance, and facial expressions c. ​Send a thank-you note d. ​Be prepared for any type of interview

Q: Interviewees prefer that interviewers do all of the following except:​ a. Show high levels of nonverbal immediacy​ b. ​Listen to interviewee answers and limit the number of interruptions c. ​Conduct the interview in an informal way in a busy work area. d. ​Ask open questions and allow sufficient time to answer them.

Q: Successful applicants use five types of comments as impression management tools during an interview. What are they?​

Q: Which of the following is recommended as an effective way to answer unlawful questions during an employment interview?​ a. ​Answer the fear behind the question rather than the question asked. b. ​Silently refuse to answer the question. c. ​Refuse to answer and mention that the question is unlawful. d. ​Answer the question as it was asked.

Q: The body of a letter of application should not state​ a. ​Your purpose in sending the letter. b. ​How you heard about the available opening. c. ​Your basic qualifications for the position. d. ​A review of your resume.

Q: The questioning phase of the interview is the responsibility of​ a. ​The interviewer b. ​The interviewee c. ​The interviewee primarily, but the interviewer partially. d. ​The interviewer primarily, but the interviewee partially.

Q: During the rapport stage of the interview, it is important to do all of these except:​ a. ​Establish a relaxed feeling between the interviewee and the interviewer. b. ​Look carefully at the letter of application for clues as to what subject would be of most interest to the person. c. ​Outline next steps after the interview, and give the applicants a chance to ask questions. d. ​Get the interviewee comfortable and ready to talk.

Q: This phase is the heart of the interview. In this phase both interviewer and interviewee have the opportunity ask and respond to questions:​ a. ​Closing phase b. ​Question-Response phase c. ​Opening Phase d. ​Orientation phase

Q: Why are you applying for this position?​ a. ​Standard question b. ​Behavioral question c. ​Direct question d. ​Unlawful question

Q: What kind of question are you using when you ask someone How long have you been in this field of work?​ a. ​Specific question b. ​Hypothetical open question c. ​Closed question d. ​Open ended question

Q: Tell me about a time when you had to demonstrate leadership and decisive thinking is an example of​ a. ​Standard question b. ​Behavioral question c. ​Direct question d. ​Unlawful question

Q: Identify five tips from your text on how to answer questions effectively during an interview and explain why these are helpful.​

Q: Impression management research shows in the first five minutes:​ a. A positive impression can predict the applicant will be hired 75% of the time.​ b. ​A negative impression can predict the applicant will not be hired 75% of the time. c. ​A positive impression can predict the applicant will be hired 90% of the time. d. ​A negative impression can predict the applicant will not be hired 50% of the time.

Q: List and define the four methods for organizing interview questions, considering when each should be used.​

Q: Sean learned in an information gathering interview that the company he hoped to interview with does not keep hard copies of job applicants' resumes on file. Instead, they store them electronically and use a job specific program to search for the best interview candidates. Knowing this, Sean needs to prepare which type of resume to submit to this company?​ a. ​Conventional resume b. ​Electronic resume c. ​Web based resume d. ​Social media profile/resume

Q: When might telephone or skype interviews be used and what are some guidelines for participating in these kinds of interviews?​

Q: If an interviewer has low self-esteem and feels threatened by the interviewee, then the interviewee may find himself/herself in a(n):​ a. ​Hostile or stress interview. b. ​Non-structured interview. c. ​Structured interview. d. ​Group interview.

Q: Explain verbal and nonverbal probes and briefly explain how each can be used successfully in an interview, giving an example of each.​

Q: What are the three steps of the opening phase of an interview and why is each step an important part of this phase?​

Q: Veronica is preparing her web resume (e-portfolio). It is important that she remembers to provide a link to a conventional resume.​ a. True b. False

Q: The interviewee has a responsibility to be prepared to ask questions during an interview​ a. True b. False

Q: Ms. Schmidt is coming back to the workplace after having taken time off to spend with her children. She should use a functional resume format that emphasizes her skills.​ a. True b. False

Q: Skills, experience, and education are just some of the factors that should be used to determine whether a person is qualified for a particular job.​ a. True b. False

Q: As long as the comments are not phony, manipulative, or false, research indicates that the controlling style of impression management results in more job offers and higher ratings of the candidate for motivation, enthusiasm, and technical skills.​ a. True b. False

Q: When the interview involves conflict and its resolution, that is called​ a. ​Grievance interview b. ​Informational interview c. ​Performance interview d. ​Interrogation interview

Q: In the case of a customer accused of shoplifting, which type of interview might be conducted?​ a. ​Grievance interview b. ​Informational interview c. ​Performance interview d. ​Interrogation interview

Q: Which of the following should be included in the closing phase of an interview?​ a. ​Ask follow up questions that you missed during the heart of the interview. b. ​Ask the interviewee if they have any more questions. c. ​Keep the person in suspense about the next step of the process. d. ​An affidavit for the interviewee to sign.

Q: Which type question is illustrated by the following example: What do you consider to be your biggest strength?​ a. ​Hypothetical open question b. ​Specific question c. Closed question​ d. ​Open ended question

Q: When there are more interviewers than interviewees, the interview is called a board interview.​ a. True b. False

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