Speech

Q: If Jonathan experiences anxiety when communicating with others to the point that he avoids communication, he is experiencing high communication apprehension. A) True B) False

Q: Highly argumentative individuals are not able to separate issues from people and tend to be ineffective group members. A) True B) False

Q: According to gender research, women and men communicate more similarly than stereotypes represent. A) True B) False

Q: Verbal aggression is an example of communication competence because it is the tendency to attack issues and positions, not people or their self-concepts. A) True B) False

Q: Being highly argumentative is similar to being verbally aggressive, and both are considered to have a negative impact on groups. A) True B) False

Q: While maintenance roles focus upon social interaction and relationships, task roles focus more on achieving the group goal. A) True B) False

Q: One effective strategy for minimizing the impact of egocentric roles is to enforce and abide by group norms. A) True B) False

Q: Two types of formal roles are task and maintenance roles. A) True B) False

Q: Introverted individuals tend to play out maintenance roles in small groups. A) True B) False

Q: A common example of a task role is called an egocentric role when a group member engages in social loafing. A) True B) False

Q: Three methods for enhancing group cohesiveness are through self-disclosure, managing conflict, and engaging in external activity. A) True B) False

Q: A support group such as AA or a problem-solving group are both examples of primary small groups. A) True B) False

Q: According to group development theory, every group naturally progresses through each of the five phases. A) True B) False

Q: Groups usually proceed through five stages including storming, warming, conforming, performing, and adjourning. A) True B) False

Q: During the storming phase, group members express their viewpoints, differences emerge, and conflict arises. A) True B) False

Q: A group is virtual if there is physical distance between its members and if they primarily rely on technology to communicate. A) True B) False

Q: Your family is a type of secondary small group. A) True B) False

Q: What is a disadvantage of using virtual groups? A) lack of nonverbal communication B) physical distance of group members C) technology challenges D) hard to build cohesion E) all of the options are correct

Q: A handful of friends waiting for a yoga class to start are considered to be a group. A) True B) False

Q: A small group is two or more interdependent people who communicate to achieve a common goal. A) True B) False

Q: A group member who says: Why don't you just take care of this; I'm too busy and have better things to do than work on this group project is demonstrating A) social loafing. B) formal roles. C) group roles. D) task roles. E) maintenance roles.

Q: Describe a group's ability to achieve its common goal by focusing on behaviors that get the job done. A) egocentric roles B) maintenance roles C) task roles D) group roles E) formal roles

Q: Describe group members who strive to get along and satisfy one another's needs while pursuing a shared goal. A) task roles B) egocentric roles C) group goals D) formal roles E) maintenance roles

Q: Your textbook suggests all of the following strategies for reducing communication apprehension in groups EXCEPT A) focused practice. B) chill out. C) pose simple questions to clarify points. D) anticipate topics to be discussed. E) prepare messages ahead of time.

Q: Describe disruptive roles in which an individual's needs are put ahead of both the group's goal and its members' needs. A) group role B) formal role C) task role D) maintenance role E) egocentric role

Q: The level of fear or anxiety associated with either real or anticipated communication is called A) social loafing. B) argumentativeness. C) communication competence. D) communication apprehension. E) storming.

Q: Which of the following is likely to be true of group members who experience high communication apprehension as compared to those with lower communication apprehension? A) more likely to express their opinions B) may appear as aloof, stiff, withdrawn C) demonstrate more confidence D) demonstrate small group competence E) talk more often

Q: According to your text, all of the following are challenges posed by virtual groups EXCEPT A) physical distance. B) save money and time. C) decreased nonverbal communication. D) hard to build cohesion. E) varied ability to use communication technology.

Q: In which of Tuckman's group development stages do members compete for status and openly disagree? A) performing B) storming C) adjourning D) norming E) forming

Q: In which of Tuckman's group development stages do members assume appropriate roles and work productively? A) performing B) storming C) adjourning D) norming E) forming

Q: In which of Tuckman's group development stages do members disengage and relinquish responsibilities? A) performing B) storming C) adjourning D) norming E) forming

Q: When a group member exhibits unique behavioral patterns or communication that serves specific functions, that member has assumed a A) group role. B) formal role. C) task role. D) maintenance role. E) egocentric role.

Q: You joined a newly formed group responsible for developing a recycling program for your community. At first, group members are somewhat reserved and uncomfortable working with strangers. Which of Tuckman's stages of group development is your group experiencing? A) forming B) norming C) storming D) performing E) adjourning

Q: Which is the correct order for Tuckman's five group development stages? A) storming, norming, forming, performing, adjourning B) forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning C) forming, norming, performing, storming, adjourning D) norming, storming, performing, forming, adjourning E) norming, forming, storming, performing, adjourning

Q: In which of Tuckman's group development stages are members socially cautious and overly polite? A) performing B) storming C) adjourning D) norming E) forming

Q: According to Tuckman's group development research, in which phase do members resolve conflicts and begin to work together as a cohesive team? A) performing B) storming C) adjourning D) norming E) forming

Q: A virtual group is one that A) exists only for a short period of time. B) relies on technology to communicate. C) lacks a leader. D) lacks a clear goal or purpose. E) presents similar challenges as other types of groups.

Q: According to your text, using assurances is the most powerful maintenance strategy irrespective of relationship type. A) True B) False

Q: Supportive communication can also be used along with positivity, assurances, and self-disclosure to help maintain our interpersonal relationships. A) True B) False

Q: One way to provide competent supportive communication is to offer advice instead of just offering a sympathetic ear. A) True B) False

Q: If you are primarily focused on your group's ability to meet its goals, you are exemplifying what type of group role? A) task B) maintenance C) egocentric D) social loafer E) formal

Q: The objective or purpose toward which a group is directed is called A) interaction. B) goal. C) common identity. D) interdependence. E) none of the options are correct.

Q: If you text your relational partner, cu soon; can't wait you are demonstrating the assurances maintenance strategy. A) True B) False

Q: The dialectic of autonomy versus connection is most pronounced in romantic and familial relationships. A) True B) False

Q: Positivity, assurances, and self-disclosure can all be used to help maintain our relationships. A) True B) False

Q: We are able to monitor the private information we disclose by removing information boundaries. A) True B) False

Q: Despite our need for novelty, our relationships are more satisfying when partners act in ways that help increase uncertainty. A) True B) False

Q: Marta and Jackson have agreed not to discuss their past relationships and to only focus on the present and future of their relationship. They are demonstrating the use of communication rules. A) True B) False

Q: Euro-Americans tend to self-disclose more frequently than Asians, Hispanics, and African Americans. A) True B) False

Q: While depth refers to disclosing increasingly personal information, breadth refers to revealing more at each layer. A) True B) False

Q: Increases in self-disclosure lead to increases in intimacy. A) True B) False

Q: People tend to self-disclose more in face-to-face than in online interactions. A) True B) False

Q: Studies suggest that both women and men alike prefer disclosing to women more so than to men. A) True B) False

Q: It is important to listen actively when others disclose to you by providing positive feedback, expressing empathy, and using a people-oriented listening style. A) True B) False

Q: We all experience competing tensions and impulses with our relational partners and they are called relational dialectics. A) True B) False

Q: Intimacy can be achieved as long as at least one relational partner engages in self-disclosure. A) True B) False

Q: According to social penetration theory, the central layers include core characteristics of your self, including self-esteem, values, and personality traits. A) True B) False

Q: By communicating demographic information such as birthplace, age, and ethnic background, you are in the outermost layer, according to social penetration theory. A) True B) False

Q: Altman and Taylor use an apple to describe the process of self-disclosure in our relationships. A) True B) False

Q: All of the following are suggestions for providing effective supportive communication EXCEPT A) make sure your partner is ready to talk. B) give advice. C) find the right place and time. D) ask good questions. E) legitimize; don't minimize.

Q: Self-disclosure is most effectively used as a relational maintenance strategy when you A) put down your partner's disclosure. B) disclose your self and encourage disclosure from your partner. C) hide important information from your partner. D) betray your partner by sharing his or her confidential disclosures. E) avoid it at all costs.

Q: By revealing one's height and biological sex, one is engaging in self-disclosure. A) True B) False

Q: Self-disclosure is particularly integral to the coming apart stages of a relationship. A) True B) False

Q: Mark's sister Lily recently disclosed to him that she is involved in a same-sex relationship. Mark feels pressured between his need to maintain his sister's confidence yet also feels the need to disclose this information to his parents. What dialectic tension is Mark experiencing? A) novelty vs. predictability B) autonomy vs. connection C) openness vs. protection D) family vs. friends E) none of the options are correct

Q: Which of the following messages is an example of supportive communication? A) blaming your partner B) mocking your partner's need for support C) telling your partner how he or she should feel D) asking your partner open-ended questions E) making your partner feel inadequate

Q: When Jack offers his partner compliments including, You look really nice in that suit, what relational maintenance strategy is he using? A) self-disclosure B) positivity C) intimacy D) assurances E) openness

Q: Which of the following is true about the relationship between the relational dialectic of novelty versus predictability? A) Relational partners want to increase uncertainty. B) Relational partners want to decrease uncertainty. C) Relational partners crave boredom. D) Relational partners should avoid new, interesting experiences. E) Relational partners need not be concerned with this dialectic.

Q: Relational dialectics can impact our relationships because A) they naturally occur in our interpersonal relationships. B) they must be managed. C) tensions occur in our interpersonal relationships. D) they are only bad if not dealt with. E) all of the options are correct.

Q: Which of the following is not an important strategy for maintaining healthy relationships, as suggested by your text? A) positivity B) protection C) openness D) assurances E) all of the options are correct

Q: Which of the following relational dialectics poses the most significant challenge for romantic relational partners? A) novelty vs. predictability B) autonomy vs. connection C) openness vs. protection D) intimacy vs. separation E) all of the options are correct

Q: Your younger sister struggles with the desire to spend time with her friends, yet feels pressured to spend time with family. What dialectic tension is she experiencing? A) novelty vs. predictability B) autonomy vs. connection C) openness vs. protection D) family vs. friends E) none of the options are correct

Q: Carlos and Jazmin often speak to one another about future plans, events, and holidays. What relational maintenance strategy are they illustrating? A) self-disclosure B) intimacy C) positivity D) assurances E) supportive communication

Q: Sophia prefers her alone time and doing activities without her partner Ethan, while he prefers to do everything with her. What relational dialectical is challenging their relationship? A) communication privacy management theory B) communication rules C) novelty versus predictability D) openness versus protection E) autonomy versus connection

Q: Selena likes to disclose her personal feelings and attitudes with her girlfriend Leona; also, she likes to be the recipient of such disclosures. However, Leona prefers to keep things to herself. What dialectic is most important for Selena? A) stability B) openness C) protection D) novelty E) autonomy

Q: If your workplace has a formal, impersonal workplace culture and communication style, preferring memos and e-mails over face-to-face or texting, what relational dialectic is it demonstrating? A) autonomy B) communication privacy management theory C) communication rules D) protection E) openness

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