Q&A Hero

Q: Each of the following statements about signing English systems is true EXCEPT A) They are the type of manualism most often used in total communication. B) They follow the same word order as spoken English. C) They include fingerspelling. D) They result in more fluency than ASL.

Q: The total communication approach uses A) Braille and manual communication. B) sign language and a typewriter. C) a telephone and a computer. D) oral and manual communication.

Q: Teaching people with hearing impairments to use visual information (such as facial expressions) to understand what is being said to them is A) speechreading. B) lipreading. C) face reading. D) gestural reading.

Q: The auditory-verbal approach encourages children with hearing impairment to A) depend on their peers for sound cues. B) use their residual hearing. C) learn sign language as quickly as possible. D) focus on visual cues.

Q: The genetic engineering debate regarding Deaf activism refers to members of the Deaf community who want to A) eliminate embryos that have the Connexin-26 gene because in can cause deafness B) physically alter a gene to cause a baby to be hearing C) eradicate deafness in vitro D) deliberately increase their chances of having a deaf child

Q: A particularly controversial point of view held by many members of the Deaf culture is that A) children should not receive cochlear implants to improve their hearing. B) parents should not permit children who are deaf to learn English. C) all students who are deaf should attend residential schools until the age of 16. D) all citizens should be required to learn American Sign Language.

Q: A deaf baseball player for whom a petition has been circulated for him to be inducted into the Major League Baseball Hall of Fame is: A) Yogi Berra. B) Johnny Lipon. C) "Dummy" Hoy. D) Al Kaline.

Q: All of the following factors identify the Deaf community as a true culture EXCEPT A) voluntary organizational networks such as National Theater of the Deaf. B) historical awareness documenting people and events significant to deafness. C) predominant pattern of marrying individuals with people outside of the Deaf community. D) well-established behavioral guidelines with regard to such things as eye contact and physical touching.

Q: The two factors that seem to have a positive effect on social adjustment are A) more inclusion with hearing peers and having parents who hear B) more inclusion with hearing peers and having parents who are deaf C) less inclusion with hearing peers and having parents who hear D) less inclusion with hearing peers and having parents who are deaf

Q: Among students who are deaf, those who achieve the highest levels of literacy tend to have A) hearing parents who teach them how to speak. B) parents who are deaf who teach them ASL. C) brothers and sisters who are hearing. D) parents who communicate with them using both ASL and speech.

Q: With respect to phonology skills in students who are deaf, A) because they are virtually non-existent, they are largely irrelevant to their learning to read. B) they should be ignored in reading instruction because they interfere with the visual skills needed to learn sign. C) they are similar to phonology skills of students with reading disabilities. D) they are most easily acquired if they are integrated into a differentiated curriculum model of instruction.

Q: When performance tests, rather than verbal tests, are used, A) the IQ scores of both those who are hearing and those who are deaf are lower. B) the IQ scores of those who are deaf are lower than those who are hearing. C) the IQ scores of those who are deaf are higher than those who are hearing. D) there is no difference in IQ scores between those who are deaf and those who are hearing.

Q: Each of the following is true about children who are deaf EXCEPT A) They reach the same language development milestones in sign as children without hearing loss do in spoken language, but at a slower rate. B) They reach the same language development milestones in sign at the same time as children without hearing loss do in spoken language. C) They are at a distinct disadvantage regarding acquisition of spoken language. D) They are at a distinct disadvantage regarding acquisition of English language comprehension.

Q: Each of the following is true about sign language EXCEPT A) It is a primitive, visual representation of oral language similar to mime. B) It has grammatical structure at the sentence level and the word level. C) There is no universal sign language. D) Twins who are born deaf develop a signing system, but it is rudimentary and less sophisticated than ASL.

Q: Grammatical structure of American Sign Language consist of each of the following EXCEPT A) handshape. B) location. C) intensity. D) movement.

Q: The middle ear consists of each of the following EXCEPT A) incus B) malleus C) auricle D) stapes

Q: The most frequent viral cause of non genetic deafness in newborns is A) otitis media. B) maternal rubella. C) congenital herpes. D) congenital cytomegalovirus.

Q: All of the following are problems associated with inner ear hearing loss EXCEPT A) sound distortion. B) balance problems. C) ringing noises. D) draining fluid.

Q: The most severe hearing impairments are associated with which part of the ear? A) middle ear B) eardrum C) inner ear D) outer ear

Q: Swimmers' ear A) is a myth, the external canal is impervious to infections. B) is medically known as external otitis, an infection of the skin of the external auditory canal. C) is caused by allergies to algae in the water. D) is caused by a perforation of the eardrum.

Q: A condition in which the external auditory canal does not form is A) atresia B) otitis C) anoxia D) atrium

Q: All of the following identify the location of hearing loss EXCEPT A) conductive. B) mixed. C) sensorineural. D) adventitious.

Q: When testing the hearing of a two-year-old child, an audiologist should avoid use of which type of audiometry? A) brain-stem-evoked response B) speech C) tympanometry D) conditioned play

Q: The"speech reception threshold"is best defined as the A) decibel level at which one can understand speech. B) intensity and frequency of spoken English. C) Hz level at which the average person can detect sound. D) level at which the human ear can discriminate between similar sounds.

Q: Most speech sounds have frequencies (pitch) thatA) have a very narrow range: 50-500 Hz.B) have a range that is affected by altitude and humidity:100-900 Hz.C) have a range higher than long-haired dogs: 250-1,000 Hz.D) have a wide range: 500-2,000 Hz.

Q: Pure-tone audiometry establishes A) detection and understanding of speech. B) threshold for hearing at various frequencies. C) kinds of hearing tests to be used. D) presence of the Moro reflex.

Q: Ideally, screening tests for babies should follow aA) 2-4-6 year ruleB) 1-3-6 month ruleC) 2-4-6 week ruleD) 2-4-6 month rule

Q: The most important organ for hearing is the A) cerumen. B) tympanic membrane. C) vestibular mechanism. D) cochlea.

Q: The ossicles function to create A) increased sense of balance. B) electrical impulse being sent to the brain. C) transfer of energy from the middle to the inner ear. D) a vacuum that stimulates hair cells.

Q: People who say that deafness should not be considered a disability argue that A) there is a difference between prelingual and postlingual deafness. B) they should be considered a cultural minority with a language of their own. C) there are advantages to being deaf, so it is not a disability. D) although deafness is a handicap, it is not a disability.

Q: According to the U.S. Department of Education, what percentage of students are identified as deaf or hard of hearing? A) 14% B) 0.10% C) 1.4% D) 0.014%

Q: Simon has a hearing loss that occurred when he was seven years old. His loss is best described as A) conductive. B) sensorineural. C) congenital. D) postlingual.

Q: The term"hard of hearing"is used to describe people with hearing impairment who A) were not born deaf but became deaf later in life. B) find it "hard" (in their own subjective judgment) to hear as well as the rest of the population. C) have a conductive hearing loss. D) have enough residual hearing to process sound with a hearing aid.

Q: From an educational point of view, how is"deafness"best defined? A) a condition present since birth B) an inability to understand speech even with a hearing aid C) a hearing loss of more than 90 dB in at least one ear D) a condition of old age

Q: From the physiological perspective, the distinction between"deaf"and"hard of hearing"is based on A) decibel levels detected. B) frequency of sounds detected. C) location of hearing loss. D) language ability.

Q: Describe the three categories that adolescents and adults in speech and language intervention programs typically fit in.

Q: The current trend in early intervention is to provide speech and language intervention in the natural environment of the young child. Discuss the rationale underlying this trend and describe three strategies that are consistent with the trend.

Q: What should be considered when developing an assessment-based intervention plan for a student with communication disorders?

Q: Describe ways that speech-language pathologists and teachers can collaborate to serve students with communication disorders.

Q: Explain how teachers' problems with communication skills can interfere with the progress of students with speech or language disorders. Provide examples of specific problems with communication that teachers sometimes demonstrate.

Q: What is the difference between a primary language disorder and a secondary language disorder?

Q: List at least three of the six theories of language development that have dominated the study of human communication at various times. Which theory is widely viewed as having the most direct implications for speech-language pathologists and teachers? Why?

Q: Distinguish between a communication disorder and a communication variation. When might a communication variation demand special teaching?

Q: Distinguish between disorders of language and disorders of speech and provide two examples of each (define each example).

Q: Explain why communication does not require speech.

Q: Many of the academic and social difficulties of adolescents and adults are now attributed to basic language disorders.

Q: Early intervention for speech and language disorders should emphasize conversation skills rather than the mechanics of language.

Q: When teaching students with speech and language disorders, the primary role of the classroom teacher is to facilitate the social use of language.

Q: Loss of voice is apraxia.

Q: More girls than boys stutter.

Q: Many children do not master phonology until they are eight or nine years old.

Q: About 50% of the children whose language is delayed at age 2 will gradually catch up developmentally with their age peers.

Q: The use of an augmentative communication system indicates that a person has a language disorder.

Q: Many children quickly outgrow their dysfluencies.

Q: By definition, all communication disorders involve impairments of speech.

Q: Which condition reduces the effectiveness of strategy training for adolescents with speech and language disorders? A) use of natural group settings B) emphasis on vocational goals C) poor reading skills D) involvement of peers

Q: Each of the following statements about adolescents and adults with speech and language problems is true EXCEPT A) They might refer themselves to a speech-language pathologist because of social embarrassment. B) The loss of the ability to speak is typically more disabling than the loss of the ability to use language. C) People with severe disabilities may need to be taught an alternative to oral language or be given an augmentative communication system. D) There may be problems settings realistic goals for speech and language learning.

Q: Jennie is a preschooler with delayed language development. Language intervention at this level generally focuses on A) articulation. B) verb forms and plurals. C) discourse. D) concept development.

Q: Ideally, the earliest intervention in the area of speech and language development, if needed, should begin A) during the first few months of life. B) between the ages of 12 and 18 months. C) when the child is of preschool age. D) in kindergarten.

Q: Which procedure most closely resembles"milieu teaching?" A) Fiona requests a ball from her teacher who asks"What do you want to do with the ball?" The teacher gives Fiona the ball only when she replies to the question. B) Fiona requests a ball from her teacher who says"There are fun things to do with a ball!" The teacher then gives Fiona the ball. C) Fiona requests a ball from her teacher who asks"What do you want to do with the ball?" The teacher waits five seconds, then gives Fiona the ball whether she replies to the question or not. D) Fiona's teacher tells her to play with a ball, then observes her playing and waits for opportunities to interact verbally with her.

Q: Jeremy is a four-year-old boy who makes infantile noises and uses gestures to request objects. He displays A) articulation problems. B) acquired aphasia. C) prelinguistic communication. D) syntactic dysfunction.

Q: Much of a child's language and social development depend on two characteristics of language interaction the child has with caregivers. What are the characteristics? A) nature and quantity of the language B) quality and variety of the language C) variety and resonance of the language D) loudness and functionality of the language

Q: All of the following are examples of functional speech language activities EXCEPT A) developing appropriate conversation skills. B) using private transportation. C) following instructions. D) performing a job.

Q: Methods of progress monitoring that involve a cycle of teaching, followed by testing, and then reteaching as necessary are A) dynamic assessments. B) curriculum-based language and communication assessment. C) curriculum-based management. D) response to intervention.

Q: Which of the following statements about written language development is true? A) Written language and literacy are not usually problems for students with speech and language disorders. B) As students progress throughout the grades, written language takes on increasing importance. C) Students with language disorders tend to express themselves clearly in writing. D) Mastering the alphabetic system is not part of written language instruction.

Q: All of the following are guidelines that teachers and parents can follow when talking with children with speech and language disorders EXCEPT A) Lead the discussion. B) Talk about things the child is interested in. C) Allow enough time for the child to respond. D) Do not interrupt the student.

Q: The ability to transfer written words into speech is A) phonology. B) decoding. C) encoding. D) reading.

Q: Students with communication disorders may have trouble with stories about ideas or events they have experienced or thought about, called A) autobiographical narratives. B) personal essays. C) first-person accounts. D) personal narratives.

Q: Which one of the following is an example of an alternative question-asking strategy? A) focusing on student-initiated questions B) reducing the complexity of a question C) increasing interaction between student and teacher so both members ask and answer questions D) creating several questions with synonymous meaning

Q: The primary role of the classroom teacher is to facilitate development of which aspect of language? A) phonology B) semantics C) pragmatics D) morphology

Q: A disorder due to brain damage that affects a person's respiratory support for making speech sounds is A) apraxia. B) echolalia. C) dysarthria. D) aphasia.

Q: Due to a brain injury, Ethan has difficulty selecting and sequencing speech. He knows he makes errors and what he wants to say, but simply cannot. Henry's condition is A) dysarthria. B) stuttering. C) acquired apraxia. D) acquired aphasia.

Q: What percentage of children and adults are considered stutterers? A) 1% B) 2% C) 5% D) 8%

Q: The most frequent type of fluency disorder is A) stuttering. B) acquired aphasia. C) echolalia. D) dysarthria.

Q: Causes of voice disorders include all of the following EXCEPT A) hearing loss. B) cleft palate. C) chicken pox. D) nodules.

Q: The dimensions of voice are A) resonance, pitch, and tone. B) resonance, loudness, and quality. C) pitch, loudness, and quality. D) resonance, pitch, and quality.

Q: Which one of the following is an articulation disorder? A) lisping B) stuttering C) aphasia D) mutism

Q: Articulation disorders A) are easily distinguished. B) are genetically based. C) have no known causes. D) involve errors in sound production.

Q: A failure of the child to understand the rules for producing the sounds of their language at an age-appropriate level and in a culturally appropriate way represents A) phonological disorders. B) articulation disorders. C) voice disorders. D) developmental apraxia.

Q: An example of a primary language disorder is a/an A) phonological disorder. B) articulation disorder. C) early expressive language delay. D) fluency disorder.