Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following has both high validity and low adverse impact? a. Cognitive ability tests b. Integrity tests c. Education d. Personality inventories

Q: Which of the following is the best predictor of training proficiency? a. Cognitive ability b. Experience c. Education d. Vocational interest

Q: Which of the following is the least useful predictor of future performance? a. Biodata b. Interest inventories c. Assessment centers d. Cognitive ability tests

Q: When personnel professionals are concerned with adverse impact or invasion of privacy associated with a test, they are assessing the: a. cost b. scoring methods c. reliability d. potential for legal problems

Q: Most drugs can be detected for ______ after use. a. 8 hours b. 2-3 days c. 2-3 weeks d. 2-3 months

Q: In recent years, the percentage of applicants failing drug tests has: a. remained the same b. increased slightly c. greatly increased d. decreased

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about drug testing? a. Many organizations use drug testing b. Illegal drug users are absent more often c. Drug testing is not accurate d. Applicants consider drug testing to be fair

Q: _______ testing certainly is one of the most controversial testing methods used by personnel professionals. a. Personality b. Ability c. Drug d. Agility

Q: Though handwriting analysts are consistent in their judgment about script features, they are not consistent in: a. their analysis of what these features mean b. their selection success rate c. their use of handwriting analysis d. any of these

Q: The manager of a retail store notices that 7% of the inventory is missing. She doesn"t know if the merchandise was stolen, lost, or broken. This missing inventory is called ______ and is one of the criteria used to validate integrity tests. a. a loss leader b. inventory obsolescence c. product pilferage d. shrinkage

Q: _______ are based on the premise that peoples' attitudes about theft as well as their previous theft behavior will accurately predict their future honesty. a. Personality based integrity tests b. Overt integrity tests c. Voice stress analyzer d. Interest inventories

Q: ____ are legal and scores on these tests are often compared to self-admissions of theft and the amount of goods lost by an organization. a. Polygraph tests b. Pencil-paper integrity tests c. Voice stress analyzers d. Electronic honesty tests

Q: _______ are designed to tell an employer the probability that an applicant would steal money or merchandise. a. Creativity tests b. Social desirability tests c. Integrity tests d. Theft analysis inventory

Q: Of the four choices below, which is the worst predictor of employee performance? a. Biodata b. Cognitive ability c. Vocational interest d. Assessment centers

Q: A job applicant is given a set of questions in which she is asked to rate the extent to which she is outgoing, anxious, optimistic, careful, and loyal. She is probably taking: a. a personality inventory b. an interest inventory c. a cognitive ability test d. an assessment center

Q: Because they are expensive, time-consuming to score and administer, and lack reliability and validity, _______ tests such as the Rorschach Ink Blot Test are seldom used by I/O psychologists. a. objective b. subjective c. projective d. multi-modal

Q: Tests of _______ determine if individuals have serious psychological problems such as depression and bipolar disorder. a. psychopathology b. psychometrics c. character d. integrity

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the "Big 5" personality dimensions? a. openness to experience b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. vigor

Q: Though there is some disagreement, psychologists today agree there are _______ main personality dimensions. a. two b. three c. five d. seven

Q: The 16PF is a personality inventory whose 16 dimensions were determined by a factor analysis. The16PF is an example of a(n) ______ test. a. theory-based b. empirically-keyed based c. parapsychology-based d. statistically-based

Q: Gandy and Dye (1989) believe that proper biodata items must: a. be job related b. deal with events under a person's control c. have answers that are verifiable d. all three of these are item standards

Q: Which of the following are criticisms of biodata? a. The validity of biodata may not be stable b. Some biodata items may not be legal c. Both are criticisms d. Neither are criticisms of biodata

Q: In constructing a biodata instrument, John asks his employees to answer a series of questions about their background. John then compares these answers to the employees' job performance. John is using which of the following methods? a. rare response scoring b. questionnaire approach c. vertical percentage method d. composite scoring

Q: The traditionally used method to compare each piece of employee information with criterion group membership in the biodata process is the: a. questionnaire approach b. rare response scoring c. vertical percentage method d. composite scoring

Q: The first step in the development of a biodata instrument is to: a. obtain information about employees b. analyze group differences c. choose an appropriate criterion d. split employees into two criterion groups

Q: Which of the following assessment center techniques allows the applicant to demonstrate such attributes as creativity, decision making, and ability to work with others? a. Business games b. Out-basket technique c. Simulations d. In-basket technique

Q: Which assessment center technique is designed to simulate the types of daily information that appear on a manager's or employee's desk? a. simulation b. work sample c. leaderless group discussion d. in-basket technique

Q: The first step in creating an assessment center is to: a. conduct a job analysis b. find a location to hold the center c. develop the necessary exercises d. restructure the company budget

Q: Which of the following is NOT a requirement for an assessment center? a. Multiple assessors b. Multiple assessment exercices c. Use of an interview d. At least one simulation exercise

Q: Which of the following selection methods uses multiple techniques and multiple observersto evaluate applicants as they perform different job-related tasks? a. Work samples b. Assessment centers c. Psychological testing d. job-knowledge testing

Q: Though work samples are excellent selection tools for several reasons, the main reason for not using them is that they can be: a. expensive to construct b. expensive to administer c. neither are important reasons d. both are important reasons

Q: A job in which an employee continually lifts 25 pound boxes from 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. requires: a. trunk strength b. gross body equilibrium c. dynamic strength d. static strength

Q: Which of the following is NOT a concern about using physical ability tests? a. Job relatedness b. Reliability c. Passing scores d. When the ability must be present

Q: Jobs such as police officer, fire fighter, and lifeguard, which require physical strength and stamina, often use _______tests. a. physical ability b. mental ability c. general aptitude d. job knowledge

Q: Tests of ______ ability might contain measures of finger dexterity and manual dexterity aptitudes. a. cognitive b. developmental c. perceptual d. psychomotor

Q: Color discrimination, glare sensitivity, and speech recognition are examples of ______ abilities. a. cognitive b. developmental c. perceptual d. psychomotor

Q: The _________ is a potential breakthrough in cognitive ability tests as it has high validity and lower levels of adverse impact. a. Miller Revised Intelligence Scale b. Siena Reasoning Test c. Cognitive Styles Assessment Test d. Employee Knowledge Scale

Q: Most general ability tests place the many specific aptitudes into one of three main dimensions. The _______ dimension includes verbal, numerical, logic, and general learning aptitudes. a. cognitive b. developmental c. perceptual d. psychomotor

Q: The major disadvantage to job knowledge tests is that even though they do a good job of predicting performance, they often result in _______. a. high costs b. misdiagnosis c. invasion of privacy issues d. adverse impact

Q: Tests that are designed to measure how much someone already knows rather than how much someone is capable of knowing are referred to as: a. knowledge tests b. interest inventories c. personality tests d. aptitude tests

Q: Which of the following is NOT true regarding the use of grade point average for employee selection? a. GPA predicts job performance b. GPA predicts best in the first years after graduation c. GPA has low adverse impact d. All three are true

Q: Which of the following is NOT an ethical practice in providing references or writing letter of recommendation? a. State the nature of your relationship with the applicant b. Provide an honest appraisal of the applicant c. Always write a positive letter of recommendation d. Let the applicant see a copy of your reference before you send it

Q: Increasing the ______ of references seems to increase validity. a. length b. scoring complexity c. structure d. psychometric depth

Q: A problem associated with letters of recommendation is the lack of agreement between two people who provide references for the same person. This lack of agreement is related to the issue of: a. reliability b. knowledge of the applicant c. leniency d. extraneous factors

Q: In a reference check over the telephone, Bob says that his former employee Ted was a real jerk and couldn't be trusted. Ted might sue Bob for: a. negligent hiring b. libel c. negligent reference d. slander

Q: Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to reference leniency? a. Applicants choose their own references b. Employers fear legal ramifications c. Most applicants are highly skilled d. All three contribute to leniency

Q: What are the three types of resumes discussed in the text?

Q: What are the seven psychological principles used in the psychological resume?

Q: What are the three characteristics of effective resumes?

Q: What are the three methods for scoring structured interview questions?

Q: What are the six types of structured interview questions?

Q: What are the eight reasons for lack of unstructured interview validity?

Q: What are the four types of newspaper recruitment advertisements?

Q: Which of the following is NOT an important principle used in writing a resume? a. Relevance b. Unusualness c. Primacy d. Relativity

Q: The resume that most takes advantage of such principles as primacy, priming, and short-term memory limits is the ______ resume. a. psychological b. chronological c. functional d. premordal

Q: Which of the following is NOT a description of an effective resume? a. Attractive and easy to read b. The applicant looks as good as possible c. There are no typos d. Qualifications are embellished a little

Q: Which of the following would NOT be good advice about writing a cover letter? a. Avoid grammar errors b. Tailor your letter to each company c. Don't beg d. Use officious words

Q: If you don't know the name of the person to whom you are sending your resume, use: a. Dear sir b. Dear madam c. To whom it may concern d. Dear human resource director

Q: How many paragraphs does the typical cover letter contain? a. Four b. Three c. Five d. One

Q: Cover letters should never be longer than: a. 1 page b. 1/2 page c. 2 pages d. length doesn't matter

Q: Which of the following arrival times will have the most dramatic effect on an interview score? a. Arrive 15 minutes early b. Arrive 5 minutes early c. Arrive right at the time of the interview d. arrive 5 minutes late

Q: Based on the information in your text, research suggests that the best day of the week to schedule an interview is: a. early in the week b. later in the week c. the middle of the week d. there is not a best time

Q: In a structured interview, if an applicant gets a point for each part of an answer that taps a main point, she is being scored using the ____ approach. a. key issues b. typical answer c. criterion validity d. Garcia and Perez

Q: If a group of employees brainstormed possible answers to an interview question, they would most likely be using the ____ approach to scoring a structured interview. a. key issues b. typical answer c. criterion validity d. Garcia and Perez

Q: Interviews that contain only past-focused interview questions are also known as: a. situational interviews b. patterned behavior description interviews c. unstructured interviews d. structured interviews

Q: A good example of a ______ interview question is "If a customer started yelling at you, how would you handle the situation?" a. skill level determining b. past focused c. future focused d. clarifying

Q: "Suppose that an angry customer started yelling at you in front of other customers. What would you do?" This type of interview question is an example of a: a. disqualifier b. clarifier c. future-focused (situational) question d. past-focused question

Q: "Can you work weekends" and "Can you work overtime without notice" are examples of which type of interview question? a. Disqualifier b. Clarifier c. Future-focused (situational) question d. Past-focused question

Q: A good example of a _______ interview question is "Your resume says that you worked for the AMFAM Club, what is that?" a. skill level determining b. past focused c. future focused d. clarifying

Q: Perhaps the best way to ensure that interviewers base their decisions on relevant information is to: a. use trained professionals b. hold them accountable for bad decisions c. use the structured interview d. interview in teams of three or more

Q: What is the first step in constructing a structured interview? a. Writing questions b. Creating a scoring key c. Conducting a job analysis d. Removing primacy effects

Q: Which of the following factors seems to have the strongest relationship with scores on a traditional interview? a. Primacy effects b. Contrast effects c. Negative information bias d. Nonverbal cues

Q: The majority of the evidence regarding physical attractiveness indicates that, in general, _______ applicants have an advantage over _______ applicants. a. more attractive / less attractive b. less attractive / more attractive c. average looking / very attractive d. none of the above

Q: An applicant who looks around the interviewer's office and pays close attention to such items as pictures and plaques probably has a good understanding of the role ________ plays in their interview score. a. interviewee appearance b. negative information bias c. interviewer-interviewee similarity d. lack of job relatedness

Q: Which of the following factors would suggest emphasizing your strengths and concealing your weaknesses in an interview? a. Primacy effects b. Contrast effects c. Negative information bias d. Nonverbal cues

Q: Your text identifies eight factors that contribute to the poor reliability and validity of the interview process. Which of the following is NOT one of the eight factors? a. Lack of job relatedness b. Contrast effect c. Halo effect d. Primacy effect

Q: Your text identifies eight factors that contribute to the poor reliability and validity of the interview process. Which factor is related to why there is no relationship between interview length and outcome? a. Lack of job relatedness b. Contrast effect c. Halo effect d. Primacy effect

Q: Which of the following factors would suggest that making a favorable first impression is important? a. Primacy effects b. Contrast effects c. Negative information bias d. Nonverbal cues

Q: Interview questions such as, "Why should I hire you" and "What college subjects do you like best" demonstrate which negative aspect of unstructured interviews? a. Lack of job relatedness b. Contrast effects c. Primacy effects d. Recency effects

Q: ______ interviews involve several interviewers interviewing one applicant at the same time. a. Panel b. Serial c. Return d. Group