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Q:
Promoting employees until they reach their highest level of incompetence is called the:
a. Anderson criteria
b. paradoxical shift
c. attribution error
d. Peter Principal
Q:
The statement "It's not fair to pay a bad employee the same amount of money as an excellent employee" exemplifies the need for accurate performance appraisals in:
a. determining salary increases
b. making promotion decisions
c. employee training and feedback
d. training needs assessment
Q:
Which of the following is true about evaluating employee performance?
a. Most performance appraisal systems are successful
b. Most organizations have specific goals for their appraisal systems
c. 360-degree feedback is best used for developmental purposes
d. All three are true
Q:
What are the three four approaches to making a hiring decision
Q:
What are the components of the Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility formula?
Q:
What are three important aspects in determining the fairness of a test?
Q:
What are the three types of criterion validity?
Q:
What components are used in the Taylor-Russell Tables?
Q:
What are the five methods for determining test validity?
Q:
What are the three main ways of determining test reliability and what type of stability does each method tap?
Q:
In constructing a band, how many standard errors are normally used?
a. Three
b. One
c. None
d. Two
Q:
To compute a band, one needs the:
a. standard error
b. validity
c. F ratio
d. mean
Q:
Which of the following hiring decision strategies takes into consideration the degree of error associated with any test score?
a. Multiple hurdle
b. Top down selection
c. Passing score
d. Banding
Q:
Which approach to employee selection would administer several tests to employees one at a time, with the least expensive tests being administered first; would score the various tests on a pass/fail basis; and would continue to test each applicant until he/she failed one of the tests?
a. Multiple-regression approach
b. Cutoff approach
c. Multiple-cutoff approach
d. Multiple-hurdle approach
Q:
With a _______ approach, the applicant is administered one test at a time.
a. multiple hurdle
b. top down selection
c. passing score
d. banding
Q:
An HR director determines that all applicants who receive at least an 81 on their test will be able to perform the functions of the job. The hiring decision strategy to be used in this situation is:
a. multiple hurdle
b. top down selection
c. passing score
d. banding
Q:
San Antonio, Texas, has a system in which the names of the top three applicants for promotion are submitted to the Chief of Police who then selects one of the three to be the new Captain. This system uses:
a. the rule of three
b. top down selection
c. a passing score
d. banding
Q:
Of the available approaches to making a hiring decision, the _______ method results in the highest levels of adverse impact.
a. multiple hurdle
b. top-down selection
c. passing score
d. banding
Q:
If an HR director believes the higher that applicants score on a test, the better they will do on the job, she could take a ________ approach to hiring decisions.
a. top-down
b. nonlinear
c. passing score
d. banding
Q:
A test predicts performance for two different groups of applicants (e.g., men and women); however, the test predicts the performance significantly better for men than it does for women. This exemplifies:
a. utility
b. single-group validity
c. differential validity
d. known-group validity
Q:
If a test is valid for two groups, but more valid for one than the other it is said to have _______.
a. known group validity
b. differential validity
c. single group validity
d. validity generalization
Q:
Single-group validity is very rare and is usually the result of _______.
a. small sample sizes
b. methodological problems
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Q:
If a test of reading ability predicts performance of white clerks but not African American clerks, the test has _______.
a. known-group validity
b. differential validity
c. single-group validity
d. validity generalization
Q:
Single-group validity and differential validity are types of:
a. adverse impact
b. predictive bias
c. measurement bias
d. validation strategies
Q:
If the selection rate for any of the protected groups is less than 80% of the selection rate for either white applicants or males, the test is considered to have _______.
a. differential validity
b. adverse impact
c. selection bias
d. known group validity
Q:
A test is considered to have _____ if there are race differences in test scores that are unrelated to the construct being measured.
a. differential validity
b. measurement bias
c. selection bias
d. adverse impact
Q:
When the criterion validity coefficient is ____, and the selection ratio is ____, a test will have the most utility in selecting successful employees.
a. large / large
b. large / small
c. small / small
d. small / large
Q:
The ______ are (is) used to determine the amount of money that an organization would save if it used a particular test in place of the test it currently uses to select employees.
a. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula
b. Taylor-Russell Tables
c. expectancy charts
d. Lawshe tables
Q:
Even though a test is both reliable and valid, it is not necessarily useful. The _______ were/was developed to determine the amount of money that an organization would save if it used a particular test to select employees.
a. Taylor-Russell tables
b. Expectancy charts
c. Lawshe tables
d. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility formula
Q:
Even though a test is both reliable and valid, it is not necessarily useful. The _______ were created to determine the probability that a particular applicant will be successful.
a. Taylor-Russell tables
b. Expectancy charts
c. Lawshe tables
d. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility formula
Q:
Which of the following pieces of information is NOT required to use the Taylor-Russell tables?
a. Criterion validity coefficient
b. Selection ratio
c. Base rate
d. Reliability
Q:
Even though a test is both reliable and valid, it is not necessarily useful. The _______ are designed to estimate the percentage of future employees who will be successful on the job if an organization uses a particular test.
a. Taylor-Russell tables
b. Expectancy charts
c. Lawshe tables
d. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility formula
Q:
Which of the following sources contain reliability and validity information on various tests?
a. Radford Guide to Reliability
b. California Index
c. Validity Studies
d. Mental Measurements Yearbook
Q:
Setting your clock ten minutes fast will affect the _______ of the clock.
a. reliability
b. validity
c. psychometrics
d. speed
Q:
Barnum statements are most associated with:
a. known-group validity
b. face validity
c. concurrent validity
d. construct validity
Q:
If test takers do not believe that items on a test measure what they are supposed to measure then the test probably lacks:
a. face validity
b. concurrent validity
c. criterion validity
d. reliability
Q:
_______ validity refers to the extent to which a test appears to be valid.
a. Content
b. Criterion
c. Construct
d. Face
Q:
If a police applicant is asked questions about her favorite hobbies and religious beliefs, she may feel the test is not valid. In this case, her impression demonstrates the importance of ______ validity.
a. construct
b. criterion
c. concurrent
d. face
Q:
A researcher correlates scores on a test (Test 1) with scores on other tests (Test 2 and Test 3). The analysis demonstrates that the scores on Test 1 correlate highly with scores on Test 2 but do not correlate with scores on Test 3. This type of analysis is used to determine:
a. content validity
b. construct validity
c. concurrent validity
d. predictive validity
Q:
Construct validity is usually determined by correlating scores on a test with _______.
a. performance on the job
b. the items within the test
c. scores from similar tests
d. correlational analysis is not used
Q:
_______ is based on the assumption that tests that predict a particular component of one job should predict performance on the same component for another job.
a. Content validity
b. Validity generalization
c. Synthetic validity
d. Face validity
Q:
If a small police department uses a cognitive ability test because a meta-analysis indicated cognitive ability is the best predictor of performance in the police academy, it is:
a. breaking the law
b. using the Taylor-Russell method
c. going to see a reduction in quality
d. using validity generalization
Q:
______ is the basis for validity generalization.
a. Face validity
b. Known-group validity
c. Meta-analysis
d. Utility
Q:
The extent to which a test found valid for a job in one location is valid for the same job in another location refers to the concept of _______.
a. the cross over effect
b. temporal stability
c. validity generalization
d. known group validity
Q:
The _______ of performance scores makes obtaining a significant validity coefficient more difficult with a concurrent validity design.
a. variety
b. restricted range
c. heterogeneous nature
d. cost
Q:
With a _______ validity design, the test is administered to a group of job applicants who are going to be hired. The test scores, which are not used in the actual hiring decision, are then compared to a future measure of job performance.
a. concurrent
b. predictive
c. content
d. face
Q:
With a __________ validity design, the test is administered to a group of employees who are already on the job.
a. concurrent
b. predictive
c. content
d. face
Q:
_______ validity is a measure which refers to the extent to which a test score is related to some measure of job performance.
a. Content
b. Construct
c. Criterion
d. Concurrent
Q:
In industry, _____ is used to establish the content validity of selection tests or test batteries.
a. job analysis
b. correlational analysis
c. job evaluation
d. an experiment
Q:
The extent to which tests or test items sample the content that they are supposed to measure refers MOST specifically to:
a. face validity
b. content validity
c. construct validity
d. criterion validity
Q:
The extent to which tests or test items sample what they are supposed to measure is related to the measure's _______ validity.
a. content
b. construct
c. criterion
d. concurrent
Q:
If we use the weight of an infant to predict the subsequent performance of the infant in college, the weight measure is probably:
a. reliable and valid
b. reliable but not valid
c. not reliable but valid
d. not reliable and not valid
Q:
_______ is an issue especially in projective or subjective tests in which there is no one correct answer.
a. Internal validity
b. Test-retest reliability
c. Scorer reliability
d. Item homogeneity
Q:
The Spearman-Brown prophecy formula is used to adjust the correlation in which of the following reliability estimate methods?
a. Test-retest method
b. Alternate form method
c. Counterbalancing method
d. Split-half method
Q:
An industrial/organizational psychologist correlates the responses to the even numbered items on a selection test with the responses to the odd-numbered items from the same test. Which of the following answers BEST describes the concern of the psychologist?
a. Parallel form reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Scorer reliability
Q:
When computing internal reliability, _____ is used for dichotomous items and _____ is used for interval and ratio items.
a. coefficient alpha / K-R 20
b. coefficient alpha / Spearman-Brown
c. K-R 20 / coefficient alpha
d. Spearman-Brown / coefficient alpha
Q:
To ask if all of the items measure the same thing, or do they measure different constructs, is related to ________.
a. internal validity
b. test-retest reliability
c. scorer reliability
d. item homogeneity
Q:
In general, the longer the test, the higher its _______.
a. internal validity
b. external validity
c. internal reliability
d. external reliability
Q:
When the two scores from alternate forms of a test are correlated and found to be similar, the test is said to have ________.
a. temporal stability
b. internal consistency
c. form stability
d. version consistency
Q:
The process of counterbalancing test-taking order is used in which method of estimating reliability?
a. Test-retest reliability
b. Alternate-forms reliability
c. Internal reliability
d. All of the above use counterbalancing
Q:
Test-retest reliability taps ____ stability.
a. form
b. temporal
c. item
d. score
Q:
A student takes the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) as a requirement to get into college. Her score on the test is 600. Three weeks later, she is asked to take the identical test again. This time she scores 500. This inconsistency in scores is an issue of:
a. internal reliability
b. parallel forms reliability
c. test-retest reliability
d. form stability
Q:
There are three major ways to determine whether a test is reliable. With the _______ method, several people each take the same test twice.
a. repeat reliability
b. test-retest reliability
c. dual reliability
d. alternate forms reliability
Q:
_______ is the extent to which a score from a test is stable and free from error.
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Psychometrics
d. Stratification
Q:
Even though references are commonly used to screen and select employees, they have not been successful in predicting future employee success. The average uncorrected validity coefficient for references and performance is:
a. .00
b. .18
c. .32
d. .57
Q:
If an employer does not check an applicant's references and the applicant molests a child after being hired, the employer could be charged with:
a. negligent reference
b. defamation
c. tort reform
d. negligent hiring
Q:
Which of the following is good advice in asking for a letter of recommendation?
a. Provide your reference with a copy of your resume
b. Give your reference plenty of advance notice before the letter is due
c. Choose references who can provide information from multiple perspectives
d. All three are good advice
Q:
Because it is not uncommon for applicants to engage in resume fraud, references and letters of recommendation are used to:
a. confirm details on a resume
b. check for outside interests and habits
c. check for discipline problems
d. discover new applicant information
Q:
The process of confirming the accuracy of information provided by the applicant is called a:
a. reference
b. reference check
c. letter of recommendation
d. trait evaluation
Q:
In psychology, it is commonly believed that the best predictor of future performance is:
a. results from a psychological test
b. present performance
c. past performance
d. asking the person if they can do the job
Q:
What are the four standards to use when considering biodata items?
Q:
What are five common assessment center exercises?
Q:
What are the three major aptitude categories?
Q:
What are the Big 5 personality dimensions?
Q:
What are the common types of psychological tests used in employee selection?
Q:
What are the three main reasons for leniency in references?
Q:
What are the problems associated with using references to predict performance?
Q:
What are the reasons for using references and recommendations?
Q:
Which of the following have the highest level of adverse impact?
a. Cognitive ability and GPA
b. Cognitive ability and integrity tests
c. Integrity tests and personality inventories
d. Integrity tests and GPA
Q:
Which of the Big 5 personality dimensions is the best predictor of employee performance?
a. Openness
b. Agreeableness
c. Conscientiousness
d. Emotional stability