Q&A Hero

Q: When employees receive word of downsizing, the first stage they go through is: a. anger b. denial c. fear d. acceptance

Q: When a layoff is announced, employees should be told: a. in a formal, written announcement b. in person c. on the last day they will be working d. all three are good practices

Q: An employee who ______ might be vulnerable to being downsized. a. has kept up with technology b. has excellent performance ratings c. has a lot of idle time d. all three are signs of risk

Q: Which of the following methods of avoiding downsizing is based on the premise that most economic recessions last less than a year? a. Job sharing b. Restricted overtime c. Reduced employee pay d. Use of payless holidays

Q: A problem with offering early retirement is that: a. it is too expensive b. few employees agree to retire early c. too many employees want to retire d. it is often illegal

Q: Henri is the president of a company with 10 employees. Each employee has full medical benefits and Henri doesn't have the time or knowledge to administer the benefits program. His best bet would be to: a. use outsourcing b. learn the needed skills c. hire a temporary employee each month d. adjust his working schedule

Q: A company gets a huge, one-time order. It needs an additional 40 employees to complete the job but will not need them once the job is done. The best strategy is for the company to: a. not accept the new job b. use temporary employees c. hire and then layoff 40 employees d. bring former employees out of retirement

Q: Which of the following is NOT an alternative to layoffs? a. Use of temporary employees b. Outsourcing c. Both are alternatives d. Neither is an alternative

Q: Which of the following is true about the relationship between economics and downsizing?Prior to downsizing: a. most organizations were losing money b. most organizations were profitable c. employees complained about low wages d. most organizations lost big contracts

Q: Which of the following is a disadvantage of working from home? a. Lower commuting costs for employees b. Lower utility costs for employers c. Unions strongly approve of home work d. It is difficult to enforce safety and fair treatment standards

Q: An employee sews garments for her company at home. Once a week she brings in the finished goods and gets paid. Her work situation would be called: a. telecommuting b. telework c. work at home d. mobile working

Q: Which of the following is the main difference between job sharing and part-time employees? a. Transportation ease b. Safety c. Organizational costs d. Employee commitment

Q: Bob works from 9:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. every day as a clerk; Sue works in that same position except from 1:00 p.m. "‘5:00 p.m. They are working an alternative work schedule called: a. flex time b. gliding time c. job sharing d. peak"‘time pay

Q: With ______, an employee works on an irregular or as-needed basis. a. casual work b. flextime c. peak-time pay d. job sharing

Q: According to research, employees who work 12-hour shifts are _____ than those working8"‘hour shifts. a. more fatigued b. absent more often c. more likely to leave the organization d. less productive

Q: Research on compressed work weeks indicates that compressed schedules are associated with: a. a moderate reduction in absenteeism b. small increases in productivity c. large increases in job satisfaction d. all of these

Q: An example of a compressed work week involves: a. working 4 days a week, 10 hours a day b. working 5 days a week, 8 hours a day c. working staggered hours d. sharing the hours with another employee

Q: Research indicates that flexible working schedules are associated with each of the following criteria except: a. higher levels of fatigue b. less absenteeism c. higher job satisfaction d. slight increases in productivity

Q: The most flexible work schedule is: a. gliding time b. modified flexitour c. job sharing d. core time

Q: _____ are(is) the number of potential hours available for work, whereas ____ consist(s) of hours during which an organization is busiest. a. core/bandwidth b. bandwidth/core c. flex/gliding d. bandwidth/flexitour

Q: A local grocery store has identified hours that everyone must work. These hours are known as: a. bandwidth b. core c. gliding d. gliding

Q: During flextime working hours, ___ refer(s) to the total number of potential hours available for work each day? a. bandwidth b. core hours c. flexible hours d. flexitour hours

Q: Which of the following is true about employees' desire for empowerment? a. All employees want empowerment b. Very few employees want to be empowered c. Most employees want empowerment d. Some want empowerment and some don't

Q: In general, empowering employees ______ job satisfaction and _______ stress. a. increases / decreases b. decreases / decreases c. decreases / increases d. the effects depend on the employee

Q: Raja has been working for Shahidi Enterprises for five years. She works by herself in a building, sorting mail. She is allowed two 20-minutes breaks each day and can take them whenever she wants. In an empowerment chart, at what level would she be at regarding her authority to make decisions about when these two breaks should occur? a. Following b. Advisory c. Participative d. Absolute

Q: At what level of input and control should a new employee be placed? a. Following b. Ownership of own product c. Advisory d. Participative

Q: To reduce misunderstandings about levels of control, _______ should be used. a. the Vroom-Yetton model b. the two-factor theory c. empowerment charts d. memos and e-mail

Q: If an empowered employee makes a wrong decision, a manager should: a. train the employee b. place the employee on a lower input level c. ignore the problem d. keep track of any future problems

Q: A manager asks an employee to study an issue and report back with recommendations on how the issue can be resolved. In this example, the employee is at the _____ level of input and control. a. ownership of own product b. following c. advisory d. absolute

Q: Which of the following levels of employee input and control is the first to remove a "redundantsystem?" a. Ownership of own product b. Following c. Advisory d. Absolute

Q: What is the lowest level of employee input and control? a. ownership of own product b. advisory c. following d. absolute

Q: Which of the following is NOT a decision making strategy associated with the Vroom-Yettonmodel? a. Autocratic I b. Consultative III c. Autocratic II d. Group I

Q: Leaders can make decisions without consulting others unless: a. their subordinates trust them b. the leader is knowledgeable c. the problem is unstructured d. the decision quality in unimportant

Q: A manager is about to make a decision regarding work schedules. He has been with the company for 20 years and has all of the information needed to make the decision. Though workschedules are a touchy issue, the manager is well thought of by his employees. How shouldhe make the decision? a. Make the decision himself b. Ask for employee input and then decide c. Have his employees make the decision d. Give the employees options and let them vote

Q: Which of the following can be used to help make decisions? a. Vroom-Yetton Model b. Two-factor Theory c. Sacred Cow Guide d. Organizational Consequence Model

Q: According to Sherriton and Stern (1997), what is the fifth and final step in assessing the new culturefollowing organizational change? a. Needs assessment b. Determining executive direction c. Training d. Evaluation of the new culture

Q: Which of the following is good advice for handling organizational change? a. Slow-down and don't make mistakes b. Take the initiative and don't be afraid c. Don't spend too much energy d. All three of these are good advice

Q: Which of the following is NOT a step in changing organizational culture? a. Socializing new employees b. Creating dissatisfaction with the old culture c. Avoiding rituals d. Hiring people compatible with the new culture

Q: After organizational change has occurred, what is the first step in assessing the new culture? a. Determining executive direction b. Training c. Evaluation d. Needs assessment

Q: An organization undergoing change should try to get the change completed no later than: a. a few weeks b. several months c. two years d. five years

Q: To create a good atmosphere for change, it is important for an organization to create: a. dissatisfaction with the current system b. a sense of the "good old days" c. a way to hide the change from doubters d. none of the three is a good idea

Q: According to Denton (1996), what is the first step in implementing change? a. Communicating details b. Creating an atmosphere for change c. Determining a time frame for change d. Assessing training needs

Q: Which of the following would most likely say If it's broke, I'll help fix it? a. Change analyst b. Change agent c. Receptive changer d. Change resister

Q: Which of the following would most likely say If it ain't broke, break it? a. Change analyst b. Change agent c. Receptive changer d. Change resister

Q: In a change made ________, employees will most likely accept the change. a. because everyone else is doing it b. by a respected leader c. without telling the reason for the change d. by a leader with a self-interest in the change

Q: When organizations undergo change, the first stage employees go through is called: a. discarding b. defense c. denial d. internalization

Q: Organizational change can be encouraged by all of the following except: a. conduct a sacred cow hunt b. play by everyone else's rules c. think like a beginner d. ask stupid questions

Q: Every memo that Cheryl receives indicates that an immediate response is required. Cheryl thinks these timelines are unnecessary are nothing more than a:a. meeting cowb. paper cowc. speed cowd. Holstein cow

Q: Bill is required to complete five forms for every request he makes. Bill is upset because he considers theses forms to be examples of a:a. meeting cowb. Holstein cowc. speed cowd. paper cow

Q: A manager who asks such questions as "Why are we doing this?" and "How and when did we start doing this?" is:a. a whinerb. ready to downsize the organizationc. about to reorganize a work unitd. conducting a sacred cow hunt

Q: Which of the following is NOT associated with social inhibition or facilitation? a. Mere presence b. Comparison c. Evaluation apprehension d. Status

Q: When two or more people perform the same task in the presence of one another, the effect on the behavior is known as: a. coaction b. audience effect c. social inhibition d. social apprehension

Q: A group of managers is watching a group of workers on an assembly line. The effect the managers will have on the performance of the workers is known as: a. coaction b. audience effects c. social inhibition d. outside pressure

Q: Social inhibition involves the ___ effects of the presence of others on individual behaviorwhereas social facilitation involves the ___ effects of the presence of others. a. negative / positive b. positive / negative c. positive / neutral d. negative / coordinating

Q: A group member consistently avoids group interaction and block's the group's activities. Hewould be considered: a. task-oriented b. structure-oriented c. individual-oriented d. maintenance-oriented

Q: A group member who coordinates the group's activities and finds new information is ____ oriented whereas one who's main role is encouraging and supporting others is ____ oriented. a. social / task b. task / social c. individual / maintenance d. individual / task

Q: Which of the following group roles encourages group cohesiveness and group participation? a. Task-oriented b. Social c. Individual d. Conjunctive

Q: Julie provides information to Temea who provides information to Juan who provides information to Julie. This is an example of which type of communication network? a. Circle b. Chain c. Centralized d. Open

Q: Increasing the perception that a group is difficult to obtain membership in helps to increase: a. group status b. group isolation c. group communication structure d. group homogeneity

Q: Social impact theory is related to: a. group size b. group status c. communication structure d. group roles

Q: A group comprised of 12 members will be _____ cohesive and have ____ morale than one comprised of five members. a. more / higher b. less / higher c. more / lower d. less / lower

Q: In Yellowstone National Park, a small group of employees runs a fast food operation which is physically removed from all of the larger lodges in town. These employees comment that they feel separated from the company's other operations; however, each summer this group tends to be a tight-knit group. This exemplifies: a. group homogeneity b. stability of group membership c. group isolation d. outside group pressure

Q: The East Barbarians softball team in the Great White North Softball League has continually improved its record over the nine years it has been in the league. Most recently, the East Barbarians, with the same team members as in the previous eight years, won the league championship for the first time. In this scenario, winning the championship probably BEST exemplifies the effects of: a. the group's homogeneity b. the stability of group membership c. group status d. group communication structure

Q: According to your text, if you are interested in improving group performance, what should the group's composition be in terms of the homogeneity of its members? a. Homogeneous b. Heterogeneous c. Slightly heterogeneous d. Homogeneity doesn't matter

Q: ______ refers to the extent to which group members are similar. a. Group cohesiveness b. Group homogeneity c. Stability of membership d. Group status

Q: ______ refers to the extent to which group members like and trust one another. a. Group cohesiveness b. Group homogeneity c. Stability of membership d. Group status

Q: People probably join a group such as a fraternity or sorority because of: a. needs for emotional support b. common interests c. common goals d. need for assistance or help

Q: POWs who were isolated from other prisoners had a lower need to live than POWs housed with older soldiers. This negative emotional reaction demonstrates the need for: a. power b. common interests c. affiliation d. control

Q: People who join a group to be with other people have ______ needs. a. identification b. support c. affiliation d. physical proximity

Q: Employees on the 7th floor go to lunch together and employees on the 2nd floor play together in a city basketball league. These examples demonstrate the importance of ____ in forming groups. a. emotional support b. physical proximity c. common interests d. assignment

Q: A hotel room attendant does not show up to clean his rooms on a given day. Due to his absence, the other room attendants are assigned additional rooms to clean. This scenario BEST exemplifies which criteria of group membership? a. Multiple members b. Group membership is rewarding c. Corresponding effects d. Common goals

Q: When something affects one member of the group, it affects all members. This is known as ______ and is a criterion for being considered a group. a. affiliation b. corresponding effects c. identification d. group status

Q: Which of the following is NOT a criteria for being a group? a. Multiple members b. Common goals c. Group rewards d. Identification

Q: What are the common reactions to conflict?

Q: What are the major reasons for conflict?

Q: What are the four stages in team development?

Q: What factors affect group cohesiveness?

Q: What factors affect group performance?

Q: What are the four factors that define a group?

Q: A conflict resolution strategy in which a neutral third party listens to all parties involved in a conflictand then makes a decision is called: a. mediation b. cooperative problem solving c. arbitration d. compromising