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Q:
The benefits of marriage ________ in terms of health; ___________.
a. are not equal . . . women benefit more than men
b. are not equal . . . men benefit more than women
c. are almost equal . . . college-educated women have an advantage, but other women do not
d. are equal . . . men and women benefit equally
Q:
Phyllis is 65 years old, lives alone, and has no close friends or relatives. Her condition is best described as
a. social isolation.
b. widowhood.
c. sociopathy.
d. socioeconomic deficiency.
Q:
A combination of emotional concern, instrumental aid, information, and appraisal best describes
a. social networks.
b. social contacts.
c. social support.
d. all of these.
Q:
To Lazarus and Folkman, several factors determine a person's ability to cope with an event. Which of these is NOT one such factor?
a. material resources, such as money
b. the belief that one can bring about the desired consequences
c. problem-solving skills
d. the magnitude of the event
Q:
When people use strategies to manage the distressing problems in their lives, they are
a. coping.
b. becoming more vulnerable to stress.
c. dispersing sources of stress.
d. in the alarm stage of the GAS.
Q:
Discrimination is a source of stress that may increase the risk for _______.
a. cardiovascular disease
b. mental health problems
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Q:
Individuals who live closer to "green spaces" in cities report ___________.
a. higher stress
b. worse self-reported health
c. lower stress
d. being victims of crimes, like muggings.
Q:
Amy faces a long commute to college every day and once there parking is difficult to find. These everyday events can be classified as
a. cataclysmic life events.
b. major life events.
c. daily hassles.
d. none of the above.
Q:
In the past year, Kelly has graduated from college, changed jobs, and bought a house. All of these events can be classified as
a. cataclysmic life events.
b. major life events.
c. daily hassles.
d. none of the above.
Q:
Cataclysmic events, such as 9/11 and Hurricane Katrina, can cause individuals to experience a prolonged stress response and feelings of depression and anxiety, and after such events individuals are often diagnosed with
a. posttraumatic stress disorder.
b. social anxiety.
c. stomach ulcers.
d. migraines.
Q:
People experience less stress during, and after, a vacation than before a vacation. However, this "vacation effect" tends to only last
a. one- two days
b. one week
c. two weeks
d. three-four weeks
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a common source of stress for women?
a. occupying multiple roles of employee and mother
b. conflict with husbands over household work
c. having a husband who supports her career goals
d. the expectation that employed women will perform the majority of child care
Q:
The most stressful occupations are those that offer
a. high demands and low control.
b. high demands and high control.
c. low demands and low control.
d. low demands and high control.
Q:
Which of these jobs is ordinarily LEAST stressful?
a. farm worker
b. waiter or waitress
c. chief executive officer
d. construction worker
Q:
The experience of discrimination
a. has been linked to health problems, including cardiovascular disease.
b. creates stress but has little ability to harm physical health.
c. creates stress, which harms physical health but has little ability to produce psychological distress.
d. occurs mostly in the workplace rather than in the community.
Q:
Which of these could be a source of stress?
a. noise
b. crowding
c. air pollution
d. all of these
Q:
During a recent football game, 77,000 people were present in a stadium with a capacity of 73,000. The accumulation of that number of people in a relatively small area would be consistent with Stokols's definition of
a. crowding.
b. learned helplessness.
c. mob behavior.
d. density.
Q:
John, a Montana rancher, lives five miles from his nearest neighbor. John's living conditions could be described as
a. dense but not crowded.
b. crowded but not dense.
c. both crowded and dense.
d. neither crowded nor dense.
Q:
The experiments with rats living in highly crowded cages suggest that
a. overcrowding leads to changes in social behavior among rats.
b. overcrowding leads to short life spans for most rats in crowded conditions.
c. rats become more fertile, thus leading to even more crowded conditions.
d. crowding eventually reduces the population to about a tenth of its original size.
Q:
Noise is considered a type of pollution because
a. one person's music is another person's noise.
b. one person's noise is another person's music.
c. it is loud.
d. it is a noxious, unwanted stimulus.
Q:
Life events produce stress by
a. making the affected person's life more unpleasant.
b. creating change and requiring adaptation.
c. putting people's lives in danger.
d. all of these.
Q:
Stressful events that are so powerful that they affect large numbers of people fit into the category of
a. life events.
b. cataclysmic events.
c. daily hassles.
d. unintentional events.
Q:
Self-report inventories of stress are useful to the extent that
a. they are reliable.
b. they predict future illness.
c. they include the items that people actually find stressful.
d. all of these.
Q:
If spouses fill out a self-report measure of stress from their spouse's point of view, and if scores of the spouses match closely, we can say that the self-report inventory is
a. reliable.
b. valid.
c. both reliable and valid.
d. neither reliable nor valid, based on the information given.
Q:
The revised Hassles and Uplifts Scale
a. asks people to rate everyday events either positively or negatively.
b. is longer and more complex than the original Hassles Scale.
c. is less able to predict headaches than the Social Readjustment Rating Scale.
d. shows that the number of hassles is more important than the severity of hassles.
Q:
Lazarus's Hassles Scale assumes that
a. stress is an objective environmental stimulus.
b. physiological instruments are more reliable measures of stress than self-reports.
c. the person's perception of an event is the critical factor in the measurement of stress.
d. frequency of hassles is more crucial than their intensity.
Q:
The Perceived Stage Scale (PSS)
a. consists of 105 items that people have experienced during the past week.
b. measures changes in coping responses, as well as daily hassles and major life events.
c. measures events in people's lives that they perceive as unpredictable and uncontrollable.
d. measures events in people's lives that they see as being controllable.
Q:
Which of the following has been used to measure stress?
a. blood pressure
b. daily hassles scales
c. self-reports
d. all of these
Q:
The Social Readjustment Rating Scale assumes that
a. daily events are more crucial than major life events.
b. change in life adjustment is the key factor in measuring stress.
c. only desirable events are valid predictors of stress.
d. positive life events tend to reduce stress.
Q:
Instruments that measure stress by quantifying physiological reactions are ordinarily
a. highly reliable.
b. highly unreliable.
c. valid predictors of physiological illness.
d. valid predictors of psychological disorders.
Q:
Several methods have been used to measure stress, but the approach taken by most health psychologists is
a. self-report scales.
b. performance tests.
c. physiological measures.
d. estimates by close associates.
Q:
Both Selye's and Lazarus's theories of stress suggest that stress
a. is a nonspecific response.
b. has both environmental and personal sources.
c. is analogous to a pathogen.
d. is characterized by all of these.
Q:
Lazarus saw stress as stemming from
a. strong emotional reactions to environmental stimuli.
b. negative life events.
c. positive life events.
d. the person's perception of an event.
Q:
According to Lazarus, a person who loses her job but sees the prospect of finding a new job as a challenge would be
a. more vulnerable to stress than someone who saw the event as a threat.
b. more likely to reappraise the situation than someone who saw the event as a threat.
c. less vulnerable to stress than someone who saw the event as a threat.
d. unrealistic and less capable of coping with the situation than someone who saw the situation more realistically.
Q:
According to Lazarus, a person's perceived ability to cope with harm or threat would be called
a. primary appraisal.
b. secondary appraisal.
c. reappraisal.
d. vulnerability.
Q:
Lazarus and Folkman suggested that stress is
a. a nonspecific response.
b. influenced by one's view of the situation.
c. a transactional process.
d. both b and c are correct
Q:
One criticism of Selye's theory of stress is that it emphasizes the ______ factors but largely ignores the influence of _______ factors.
a. external . . . internal
b. physical . . . psychological
c. psychological . . . individual
d. retrograde . . . proactive
Q:
Which of these is NOT a stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome?
a. resistance stage
b. illness stage
c. exhaustion stage
d. alarm stage
Q:
Stress has been considered as
a. a stimulus.
b. a response.
c. the interaction between stimulus and response.
d. all of these.
Q:
The person(s) who proposed the view of stress as a nonspecific response was
a. Selye.
b. Lazarus.
c. Meichenbaum.
d. Dohrenwend.
Q:
In recent years, some observers have criticized the "fight or flight" hypothesis on the grounds that
a. it defies common sense.
b. it is inconsistent with the behaviors of nonhuman animals.
c. it is valid for adults but not for children.
d. it is more valid for men than for women.
Q:
During periods of extreme stress, the _________ helps mobilize the body's resources for the "fight or flight" response.
a. somatic nervous system
b. sympathetic nervous system
c. parasympathetic nervous system
d. digestive system
Q:
Epinephrine
a. is produced by the pituitary gland.
b. is another word for norepinephrine.
c. is secreted exclusively by the sympathetic nervous system.
d. is so strongly associated with stress that it has been used as an index of stress.
Q:
The class of chemicals containing epinephrine and norepinephrine is called
a. acetylcholines.
b. catecholamines.
c. neurotransmitters.
d. glucocorticoids.
Q:
The adrenal glands are an important part of the _______ system.
a. cardiovascular
b. nervous
c. immune
d. digestive
Q:
The adrenal glands are located
a. in the midbrain.
b. in the forebrain.
c. just above the stomach.
d. just above the kidneys.
Q:
Which chemical substances of the endocrine system serve functions similar to the neurotransmitters of the nervous system?
a. lymph nodes
b. hormones
c. arterioles
d. efferents
Q:
What is the difference between glands of the endocrine and neuroendocrine systems?
a. Glands in the neuroendocrine system are controlled by the nervous system.
b. Glands in the endocrine system are controlled by the autonomic nervous system not the sympathetic nervous system.
c. Glands in the neuroendocrine system secrete hormones, but those in the endocrine system do not.
d. Glands in the endocrine system secrete hormones, but those in the neuroendocrine system do not.
Q:
The endocrine system consists of
a. a system of ductless glands within the brain and spinal cord.
b. a system of ducted glands in the digestive system.
c. a system of both ducted and ductless glands oriented toward reproduction.
d. a system of ductless glands distributed throughout the body.
Q:
The two principal neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are
a. serotonin and dopamine.
b. acetylcholine and norepinephrine.
c. epinephrine and dopamine.
d. the same as the principle neurotransmitters of the central nervous system.
Q:
If the activity level of the sympathetic nervous system increases, the level of activity in the parasympathetic nervous system
a. decreases.
b. increases.
c. doubles.
d. remains constant.
Q:
The hormone ________ may be responsible for women's stress response being characterized as "tend and befriend" rather than "fight or flight."
a. adrenocorticotropic hormone
b. cortisol
c. norepinephrine
d. oxytocin
Q:
________, or the wear and tear of the body, may be responsible for a number of health problems, such as high blood pressure, insulin resistance, and decline in cognitive functioning.
a. Allostatic load
b. Survival
c. "Fight or flight" response
d. Coping
Q:
When the physiological stress response has been active for a prolonged amount of time, ______ may occur.
a. allostatic load
b. survival
c. "fight or flight" response
d. coping
Q:
The term that refers to the body's maintenance of an appropriate level of activation under changing circumstances is
a. "fight or flight" response.
b. allostatic load.
c. allostasis.
d. coping.
Q:
Activation of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system produces ____ in heart rate, and activation of the parasympathetic division produces ____.
a. increases . . . additional increases in heart rate
b. increases . . . decreases in heart rate
c. decreases . . . increases in blood pressure
d. decreases . . . additional decreases in heart rate
Q:
Which of the following responses is NOT part of sympathetic activation?
a. increased heart rate
b. increased blood pressure
c. increased digestive system activity
d. decreased salivary activity
Q:
The sympathetic nervous system
a. is a division of the parasympathetic nervous system.
b. mobilizes the resources of the body during stressful or emergency situations.
c. is activated at an elevated rate during the exhaustion stage.
d. all of these are correct.
Q:
The autonomic nervous system has two subdivisions:
a. afferents and efferents.
b. central and peripheral nervous systems.
c. the brain and the spinal cord.
d. sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Q:
The peripheral nervous system is divided into two parts:
a. the afferent and efferent branches.
b. the spinal cord and brain.
c. the spinal cord and parasympathetic nervous system.
d. the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
Q:
The central nervous system consists of the
a. heart and the blood vessels.
b. brain and the spinal cord.
c. brain and the blood vessels.
d. somatic and the autonomic nervous systems.
Q:
The space between neurons is called
a. an interneuron.
b. an intraneuron.
c. a neurotransmitter.
d. the synaptic cleft.
Q:
Individual nerve cells are called
a. synapses.
b. protons.
c. neurons.
d. ganglions.
Q:
Evaluate the behavioral interventions for managing stress, addressing the types of stress-related problems for which each is successful.
Q:
What are the advantages of problem-focused coping? Does emotion-focused coping have any advantages?
Q:
What are stage theories of health behavior change? How do they differ from continuum theories?
Q:
Discuss ways to improve adherence.
Q:
Evaluate the contribution of personal factors to adherence to medical advice.
Q:
How frequent are adherence failures?
Q:
What assessment issues have an impact on understanding adherence rates?
Q:
Using the transtheoretical model, explain the behavior of a 22-year-old woman who quit smoking three days ago.
Q:
Maria decided that she wants to start exercising again and made a plan to "go to the gym after work on Tuesday and Thursday for 1 hour." This is an example of implementation intentions.
Q:
Intentions have been shown to reliably predict future behavior.
Q:
The behavioral model utilizes components of operant conditioning to understand health behavior change.
Q:
One criticism of both stage and continuum theories is that they fail to account for the demographic and economic factors that may affect people's health behaviors.
Q:
The theory that includes four beliefsperceived susceptibility, perceived severity, perceived benefits, and perceived barriersto predict health-related behavior is the theory of planned behavior.
Q:
The first stage of the transtheoretical model is called the precontemplation stage.
Q:
People's belief that they can control their environments is called self-efficacy.
Q:
Reciprocal determinism is the concept that human action is the result of an interaction of behavior, environment, and person factors.
Q:
Depression is more of a risk factor for nonadherence than anxiety is.