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Home » Science » Page 597

Science

Q: Throughout the living world, the genetic code is generally universal; however, there are slight variations.

Q: Proteins known as chaperones are found only in Bacteria.

Q: rRNA has an enzymatic role in all stages of protein synthesis.

Q: The formation of new DNA does NOT require energy.

Q: Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase catalyzes the reaction between the appropriate amino acid and ATP to form an activated amino acid: amino acid + ATP ↔ aminoacyl-AMP + P-P.

Q: RNA is incapable of forming secondary structure.

Q: RNA acts at both the genetic and the functional levels.

Q: DNA replication is bidirectional in prokaryotes with circular chromosomes.

Q: The genetic material in a virus is technically called a plasmid.

Q: Genes found on plasmids DO NOT impact metabolism or cellular structures.

Q: In nature, the predominant form of DNA is supercoiled in a negative direction.

Q: Inverted repeats are common features of transcription termination sequences in all three domains of life.

Q: Most prokaryotic genomes are double-stranded circular DNA.

Q: In DNA replication there are leading and lagging strands, because A) DNA replication is conservative and a completely new DNA molecule must be made. B) DNA replication is semiconservative and each strand is copied simultaneously in opposite directions. C) the strands of DNA are parallel and are copied in the same direction simultaneously. D) one strand of DNA is copied faster than the other.

Q: Each adenine-thymine base pair has ________ hydrogen bonds, while each guanine-cytosine base pair has ________ hydrogen bonds. A) two / one B) two / three C) four / three D) three / two

Q: A triplet of bases on an mRNA molecule is known as a(n) A) amino acid. B) anticodon. C) codon. D) ribosome-binding sequence.

Q: During DNA replication Okazaki fragments are linked together by________, an enzyme that creates phosphodiester bonds between nicked fragments of DNA. A) exopolymerase B) DNA gyrase C) topoisomerase D) DNA ligase

Q: Transcription in eukaryotes occurs in the A) RNA polymerase. B) endoplasmic reticulum. C) cytoplasm. D) nucleus.

Q: You are studying a protein in Salmonella typhimurium that you believe is a toxin. Whenever you attempt to purify the protein from lysed cell cultures, you get two forms of the protein. One form is smaller than the other and is missing 15 amino acids from the N-terminus compared to the larger form. This leads you to hypothesize that A) there are two termination sites in the mRNA. B) the protein requires chaperonins to fold properly. C) the protein is secreted and folds outside of the cell. D) you need to re-do the experiment because there should only be one form.

Q: In ________ several ribosomes can simultaneously translate a single mRNA molecule in a complex called a(n) ________. A) prokaryotes / polysome B) eukaryotes / polysome C) prokaryotes / initiation complex D) eukaryotes / splicing complex

Q: You experimentally change the DNA sequence directly upstream of a start codon of an operon in E. coli to investigate the function of this region of DNA. Analysis reveals that after the change the same amount of mRNA is made from the operon, but there are very few proteins made from the operon. What is the most likely function of the DNA sequence that you changed? A) The DNA sequence likely functions as a ribosome-binding site. B) The DNA sequence likely functions as a promoter. C) The DNA sequence likely functions as a termination sequence. D) The DNA sequence likely functions as in transcriptional regulation.

Q: The structure and function of a protein are determined by its ________ sequence. A) nucleotide B) amino acid C) ribonucleotide D) translocation

Q: The codon on the ________ matches with the anticodon on the ________ to direct the addition of the correct amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain. A) mRNA / tRNA B) tRNA / mRNA C) DNA / mRNA D) tRNA / rRNA

Q: Plasmids often encode for proteins A) involved in translation. B) required for cellular growth. C) that confer resistance to antibiotics. D) involved in DNA replication.

Q: An operon is a useful genetic element, because it A) encourages the binding of RNA polymerase. B) allows coordinated expression of multiple related genes in prokaryotes. C) translates DNA sequence into amino acid sequence. D) encourages the binding of ribosomes in the correct location.

Q: Polycistronic transcription units are common in A) Archaea. B) Bacteria. C) Eukarya. D) both Archaea and Bacteria.

Q: The function of RNA polymerase is to A) catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribonucleotids. B) catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between ribonucleotides. C) cleave mRNA to remove introns. D) activate tRNAs.

Q: DNA replication is started with a(n) ________, which, in most cases, in vivo is a short stretch of ________. A) promoter / DNA B) mRNA / RNA C) primer / RNA D) ribosome-binding sequence / DNA

Q: The function of the DNA polymerase is to catalyze A) the addition of deoxynucleotides. B) the formation of RNA primers. C) the addition of ribonucleotides. D) hydrogen bonding between complementary base pairs.

Q: In complementary base pairing of DNA, adenine pairs with ________ (or ________ in RNA) and cytosine always pairs with ________. A) guanine / uracil / thymine B) uracil / thymine / guanine C) thymine / guanine / uracil D) thymine / uracil / guanine

Q: Transposable elements are A) segments of DNA that move from one site to another. B) transcribed genes. C) segments of RNA that are involved in transposing DNA into proteins. D) proteins that aid in the secretion of enzymes out of the cell.

Q: In Bacteria, a chromosome can be distinguished from a plasmid, because a chromosome is a genetic element that A) is circular. B) is linear. C) encodes for essential functional genes. D) replicates via a bidirectional fork.

Q: The two strands of the DNA double helix are held together by A) 5' to 3' attraction. B) hydrogen bonds between nucleotide bases. C) codons. D) peptide bonds between nucleotide bases.

Q: DNA participates in protein synthesis through A) cyclic messengers. B) direct pairing with amino acids. C) an RNA intermediate. D) protein folding.

Q: The flow of biological information begins with A) DNA replication. B) RNA transcription. C) mRNA translation. D) transcriptional regulation.

Q: Transcription of chaperonins is greatly accelerated when a cell is stressed by A) excessive osmotic pressure. B) extremes in pH value. C) lack of oxygen. D) excessive heat.

Q: GTP provides energy for A) transcription. B) translation. C) DNA replication. D) protein folding.

Q: Termination of RNA synthesis is ultimately determined by A) exhaustion of RNA polymerase activity. B) special protein factors. C) terminases. D) specific nucleotide sequences on the template strand.

Q: Which of the following is NOT correct regarding DNA and RNA synthesis? A) The overall direction of chain growth is from the 5' to 3' end. B) Both processes require an RNA primer to begin. C) The template strand is antiparallel to the newly synthesized strand. D) DNA is the template for both DNA and RNA synthesis.

Q: In all cells a gene encodes for A) a protein (via mRNA). B) a tRNA. C) an rRNA. D) a protein, tRNA, or rRNA depending on the specific gene.

Q: Which of the following is an example of one codon? A) CATT B) GCCATT C) CAG D) CCGUAA

Q: In all cells, genes are composed of A) nucleic acids. B) mRNA. C) proteins. D) chaperones.

Q: The Tat system is involved in A) protein synthesis. B) transcriptional initiation. C) protein folding. D) protein secretion.

Q: Which statement is TRUE regarding protein synthesis? A) Ribosomal proteins catalyze peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain. B) The 23S rRNA catalyzes peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain. C) Transfer RNAs catalyze peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain. D) Messenger RNA catalyzes peptide bond formation in the growing polypeptide chain.

Q: tRNA is released from the ribosome at the ________ site. A) P B) A C) R D) E

Q: Transfer RNA molecules A) function to transfer ribonucleotides to RNA polymerase during transcription. B) function to transfer the correct amino acids to the ribosome during translation. C) contain codons that bind to ribosomes during translation. D) are only present in the nucleus or eukaryotes.

Q: Stop codons are also called ________ codons. A) nonsense B) release factor C) degeneracy D) conversion

Q: An example of correct nucleotide pairing is A) T and U. B) G and U. C) A and T. D) C and U.

Q: In the process of transcription, promoters are specific sequences of ________ that are recognized by ________. A) DNA / DNA polymerase B) RNA / DNA polymerase C) DNA / sigma factors D) RNA / ribosomes

Q: The template for RNA polymerase is ________, and the new RNA chain is ________ to the template. A) an independent RNA segment / parallel and identical B) DNA / antiparallel and complementary C) an independent RNA segment / antiparallel and complementary D) DNA / parallel and identical

Q: Which of the following is formed on the lagging strand during DNA synthesis? A) DNA secondary structures B) Okazaki fragments C) RNA polymerase D) replisomes

Q: DNA replication always proceeds in only one direction because the ________ of the incoming nucleotide is attached to the free ________ of the growing DNA strand. A) 5'-phosphate / 3'-hydroxyl B) 3'-phosphate / 5'-hydroxyl C) 5'-deoxyribose / 3'-base D) 3'-base / 5'-deoxyribose

Q: The precursor of each new nucleotide in a strand of DNA is a A) deoxynucleoside 5'-diphosphate. B) deoxynucleoside 3'-diphosphate. C) deoxynucleoside 5'-triphosphate. D) deoxynucleoside 3'-triphosphate.

Q: Genes that encoded for polymerases, gyrases, ribosomal proteins, and other proteins essential to replication, transcription, and translation are present on A) chromosomes. B) plasmids. C) chromosomes and plasmids. D) neither chromosomes nor plasmids.

Q: How are plasmids different than chromosomes? A) Plasmids are always small, linear pieces of DNA. B) Plasmids are composed of single-stranded DNA. C) Plasmids contain genes that are NOT essential for cellular growth and replication. D) Plasmids carry unimportant genes that are of little significance for the ecology and metabolism of an organism.

Q: Many pharmaceutical drugs specifically inhibit transcription in Bacteria but not Archaea or Eukarya. Why would drugs that inhibit transcription only affect Bacteria and not Archaea even though they are both prokaryotes? A) Archaea and Eukarya have very similar ribosomes that are different than bacterial ribosomes. B) Bacteria lack a nucleus. C) Archaea lack operons. D) Archaea and Eukarya have very similar RNA polymerases that are different than bacterial RNA polymerases.

Q: Supercoiling is important for DNA structure, because A) it holds together the antiparallel strands of DNA in the double helix. B) it provides energy for transcription. C) it condenses the DNA so that it can fit inside the cell. D) it prevents RNA from pairing with DNA in the double helix.

Q: AT-rich DNA will denature/melt A) at a higher temperature than GC-rich DNA. B) at a lower temperature than GC-rich DNA. C) usually at the same temperature as GC-rich DNA, with some minor variations. D) in accordance with the animal or plant from which it was taken.

Q: DNA-binding proteins interact predominantly within which portion of a double-stranded DNA helix? A) major groove B) minor groove C) 3' end D) supercoil

Q: Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning mRNA? A) mRNA has a very short half-life. B) mRNA has complex secondary structure. C) mRNA is catalytic. D) mRNA is the product of translation.

Q: The functional unit of genetic information is the A) nucleotide. B) gene. C) chromosome. D) protein.

Q: Explain why the amount of energy released in a redox reaction depends on the nature of both the electron donor and the electron acceptor.

Q: A beer-making microbiologist noticed that no matter how long the brewing process went, 3% alcohol was the maximum produced. Hypothesize what is causing this low level of alcohol in reference to the brewer's recipe and recommend how a higher alcohol yield could be achieved. Ethanol is toxic at high concentrations, but ignore this factor to focus on microbial metabolism.

Q: Explain what an enzyme must accomplish to catalyze a specific reaction.

Q: Differentiate between exergonic and endergonic in terms of free-energy calculations.

Q: In an aquatic microbial community where a photoautotroph, chemoorganoheterotroph, and nitrogen fixing bacterium are present, predict an environmental perturbation that would cause only one to be outcompeted by the other two groups and explain how each group would respond.

Q: Explain the biosynthetic and bioenergetic roles of the citric acid cycle.

Q: Discuss why energy yield in an organism undergoing anaerobic respiration is less than that of an organism undergoing aerobic respiration.

Q: Summarize the roles the proton motive force has in microbial metabolism.

Q: Contrast fermentation and respiration in terms of electron donor, electron acceptor, type of ATP production, and relative number of ATP produced.

Q: Categorize the circumstances under which the same substance (molecule) can be either an electron donor or an electron acceptor.

Q: Compare and contrast defined media and complex media. Use specific examples in your answer.

Q: A bacterium that lacks an arginine biosynthetic pathway would still be able to make proteins with arginine and grow only if arginine is supplemented into the growth medium.

Q: The net result of electron transport is the generation of a pH gradient and an electrochemical potential across the membrane.

Q: Many defined growth media that support microbial growth lack malonate, which is an important precursor for biosynthesis of lipid membranes. Based on this, we can infer cells also must have a metabolic pathway to generate malonate from other compounds.

Q: During the electron transport process, protons and electrons become physically separated in the cell membrane.

Q: Heme prosthetic groups are involved in electron transfer with quinones.

Q: In electron transport systems, the electron carriers are membrane associated.

Q: Catabolic pathways are essential for microorganisms to obtain energy, because biosynthetic reactions for cellular growth generally require energy input.

Q: In substrate-level phosphorylation, ATP storage is depleted during the steps in catabolism of the fermentable compounds.

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