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Science
Q:
The use of transposons to generate mutations is a convenient way to create bacterial mutations in the laboratory.
Q:
In a prokaryotic genome, either insertion elements OR transposons are present, but both are never present at the same time.
Q:
When the F factor is integrated, all Hfr strains have the origin of replication functioning in the same direction.
Q:
Most plasmids are circular rather than linear.
Q:
Almost all plasmids are double-stranded DNA.
Q:
Laboratory-based genetic systems have been difficult to develop for Archaea, because they do NOT naturally undergo conjugation or transduction.
Q:
Bacterial mating (or conjugation) is a bidirectional process where nucleic acids (DNA or RNA) are transferred between two cells.
Q:
The evolutionary significance of phage conversion likely stems from an effective alteration of host cells.
Q:
Following uptake, transforming DNA becomes attached to a competence-specific protein that prevents it from nuclease attack until it reaches the chromosome.
Q:
When UV radiation damage occurs, DNA repair occurs only in the absence of template instruction.
Q:
UV radiation is a useful tool in producing mutants of microbial cultures.
Q:
The CRISPR system
A) facilitates homologous recombination through a complex system of proteins and clustered repeats.
B) recognizes foreign DNA sequences that have previously entered the cell and directs the Cas proteins to destroy them.
C) repairs DNA and increases DNA damage tolerance during times of stress.
D) synthesizes gene transfer agents during stationary phase.
Q:
High-efficiency natural transformation
A) is common in Bacteria and Archaea.
B) requires specialized DNA uptake, DNA binding, and integration proteins.
C) is only common in Archaea.
D) usually involves plasmids.
Q:
Integration of linear transforming DNA into the chromosome
A) is not required for the expression for the transformed genes.
B) is catalyzed by the RecA gene.
C) almost never occurs because restriction endonuclease will degrade the DNA before it is integrated.
D) only occurs in laboratory-based systems in artificial competent cells.
Q:
The process in which related DNA sequences from two different sources are exchanged is called
A) transduction.
B) phage conversion.
C) reversion.
D) homologous recombination.
Q:
When DNA is transferred into a prokaryotic cell it may
A) be degraded by enzymes.
B) replicate independent of the host chromosome.
C) recombine with the host chromosome.
D) be degraded by enzymes, replicate independent of the host chromosome, or recombine with the host chromosome.
Q:
If a bacterium carrying a plasmid that confers resistance to ampicillin is placed into medium without ampicillin, it may
A) gain resistance to other antibiotics.
B) transfer resistance to other cultures in the laboratory.
C) undergo a reversion mutation.
D) lose the plasmid because there is no selection for ampicillin resistance.
Q:
The designations Phe-, Leu-, and Ser+ refer to an organism's
A) plasmid type.
B) genotype.
C) phenotype.
D) mutation type.
Q:
The F (fertility) plasmid contains a set of genes that encode for the ________ proteins that are essential in conjugative transfer of DNA.
A) pili
B) SOS repair
C) transduction
D) transformation
Q:
When damaged or single-stranded DNA activates the RecA protein, the RecA protein stimulates the cleavage of LexA. This results in
A) repression of polymerase V and activation of endonuclease.
B) activation of the Hfr system.
C) derepression of the SOS system.
D) increased transduction and recombination.
Q:
Microinsertions and microdeletions often result in ________ mutations.
A) auxotrophic
B) advantageous
C) silent
D) frameshift
Q:
The SOS system repairs DNA that has gaps, breaks, and other lesions by
A) cutting DNA from other parts of the genome and pasting it into the gaps or damaged areas.
B) stabilizing single-stranded DNA until the next round of normal replication.
C) using specialized DNA polymerases that will synthesize a new DNA strand even if there is not a normal complementary DNA strand to act as a template.
D) using available mRNA and a special RNA-dependent DNA polymerase to fill in the gaps and replace damaged DNA.
Q:
Chemical mutagens, UV radiation, and ionizing radiation all increase mutation rates, but they have different mechanisms. Which type of mutagen would be best suited for creating large deletions and rearrangements within a genome?
A) chemical mutagens
B) UV radiation
C) ionizing radiation
D) Chemical, UV, and ionizing radiation would create large deletions and rearrangements if used in a very high dose.
Q:
Mutation rates are similar in Bacteria and Archaea, yet certain stressful conditions mutation rates increase. Why is the mutation rate not constant and close to zero all of the time?
A) Increased mutation rates can be advantageous in rapidly changing environments because some random mutations may be useful for survival.
B) Microorganisms carefully control the mutation rate of their DNA to match the environmental conditions and maximize evolution.
C) The increased mutation rate under stressful conditions is an indication that the microorganisms can no longer replicate their DNA properly and are about to die.
D) Constant mutation rates would halt evolution completely.
Q:
Hfr means high frequency of ________, and these cells are capable of transferring genes from their ________ to other cells.
A) transformation / chromosome
B) transduction / plasmids
C) recombination / chromosome
D) transduction / chromosome
Q:
You work for a biotechnology company that uses Streptomyces strains to produce pharmaceutical products. A phage has infected and killed some of your Streptomyces strains during production, resulting in dramatically decreased yields. To protect the strains from infection you propose to
A) introduce gene transfer agents into the Streptomyces cultures to transfer antibiotic resistance genes into your Streptomyces strains.
B) design and insert CRISPR spacer sequences into the genomes of your strains that are complementary to the genomes of the phages that are infecting the cultures.
C) infect the Streptomyces strains with a helper phage that will help the strains resist infection.
D) transform the Streptomyces strains with plasmids encoding antibody proteins that will protect them from phage infection.
Q:
Transformation and homologous recombination allow for the formation of heteroduplex DNA. Which of the following would occur during DNA replication of this molecule?
A) One daughter strand is complementary to the recombinant DNA molecule, while the other daughter strand is complementary to the parent DNA molecule.
B) Both daughter strands are complementary to the recombinant DNA molecule.
C) Both daughter strands are complementary to the parent DNA molecule.
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q:
Which of the following factors has delayed the development of laboratory-based genetic systems in Archaea?
A) There are no documented systems of conjugation in Archaea.
B) Homologous recombination does NOT occur in Archaea.
C) Archaeado NOT host viruses or plasmids.
D) Many archaea grow in extreme or unusual conditions that make the use of agar and traditional mutant screening techniques problematic.
Q:
The SOS regulatory system is activated by
A) the activity of DNA polymerase IV.
B) DNA damage.
C) transcription of LexA.
D) repression of RecA.
Q:
Genetic recombination involving insertion sequences typically results in what type of mutation?
A) base-pair substitution mutation
B) silent mutation
C) frameshift mutation
D) base-pair deletion mutation
Q:
In the bacterial world, a gene located on which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be transferred?
A) R factor
B) F+
C) the phage Mu
D) the chromosome
Q:
Which of the following is most similar to lysogeny?
A) Hfr state
B) F+ state
C) F- state
D) F' state
Q:
Which of the following features are common to transformation, transduction, and conjugation?
(1) unidirectional transfer of genes
(2) incomplete gene transfer
(3) homologous recombination
(4) meiosis occurring in the recipient
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
Q:
Consider conjugation in Escherichia coli. In which of the following matings would chromosomal genes be transferred most frequently?
A) F+ F-
B) F- F-
C) Hfr F-
D) Hfr F+
Q:
The production of a functional gene product by transforming bacteria that lack a lacZ gene with a plasmid containing a lacZ gene is known as
A) complementation.
B) mitosis.
C) transfection.
D) reversion.
Q:
A deleterious mutation in recA results in
A) a decrease in specific recombination.
B) a decrease in homologous recombination.
C) an increase in homologous recombination.
D) no change in either general or specific recombination.
Q:
A "point mutation" refers to mutations involving
A) a base-pair substitution.
B) the gain of a base pair (microinsertion).
C) the deletion of a base pair (microdeletion).
D) a substitution, deletion, or addition of one base-pair.
Q:
A strain of an organism with an increased mutation rate is known as a(n)
A) adaptive mutagen strain.
B) hypermutable or mutator strain.
C) encoded dnaQ system.
D) phenotypic variation.
Q:
The enzyme transposase may be coded for by insertion sequences on a
A) chromosome.
B) phage.
C) plasmid.
D) chromosome, phage, or plasmid.
Q:
Transposition is a(n)
A) homologous recombination event.
B) analogous recombination event.
C) site-specific recombination event.
D) general recombination event.
Q:
All Hfr strains integrate into the chromosome at
A) the same locus.
B) several specific sites.
C) the same locus most of the time, although there may be some variation.
D) loci that cannot be accurately determined.
Q:
F- strains of Escherichia coli
A) do not have an F factor.
B) have the F factor as a plasmid.
C) have an integrated F factor.
D) transfer the F factor to other strains at a high frequency.
Q:
F+ strains of Escherichia coli
A) do not have an F factor.
B) have the F factor as a plasmid.
C) have an integrated F factor.
D) transfer the F factor to recipient cells at a high frequency.
Q:
Hfr strains of Escherichia coli
A) do not possess an F factor.
B) have the F factor as a plasmid.
C) have an integrated F factor.
D) transfer the complete F factor to recipient cells at a high frequency.
Q:
Homologous recombination has been observed in
A) Archaea.
B) Bacteria.
C) Eukarya.
D) Archaea, Bacteria, andEukarya.
Q:
Which of the following would NOT be a trait of a resistance plasmid?
A) It may carry antibiotic resistance genes.
B) It may carry heavy metal resistance genes.
C) It increases the host's growth rate.
D) It may undergo genetic recombination.
Q:
Plasmids that govern their own transfer are known as
A) transformable.
B) transmutable.
C) conjugative.
D) transfective.
Q:
Defend why the discovery of prions and viroids changes our view on what it takes to be an infectious particle. Be sure to explain the feature of each that distinguishes them from traditional viruses.
Q:
Why are phylogenetic studies of viruses more challenging than Bacteria? Explain how genes are selected in viruses for phylogeny and the constraints those create.
Q:
Why is so much emphasis placed on the genomic composition (e.g., ssRNA, dsDNA) of individual viruses. Provide examples to support your explanation.
Q:
Explain why the viral genome of the MS2 phage can be immediately translated. What type of genome must it have for this to be the case?
Q:
Describe one use of bacteriophage Mu for a bacterial geneticist, and explain why it is useful.
Q:
Is there a certain type of virus morphology that is especially known to cause disease in humans? Explain your reasoning.
Q:
Describe the hypothesis of viruses occurring before living cells and how DNA might have evolved. What is the current hypothesis about the evolutionary relationships between RNA, DNA, viruses, and cellular life?
Q:
Describe how bacteriophages influence the ocean's bacterial populations and nutrient cycling.
Q:
A bacteriophage that lacks its proteinaceous capsid structure is also called a viroid.
Q:
A negative-stranded RNA virus produces a complete positive-stranded RNA virus that serves as template DNA for other proteins in order to replicate the complete negative-stranded RNA genome.
Q:
Due to their indispensible role for copying its genome, an intracellular host protease that attacks the adenoviral protein ends would likely result in halting its replication.
Q:
Many human-infecting viruses that illicit a strong immune response cause additional harmful effects on humans, so the discovery of a virus that can induce an immune response but not cause harm made it attractive for vaccine development.
Q:
Most archaeal viruses identified appear to have DNA genomes.
Q:
Some virus shapes that infect members of Archaea are unique from other viruses that infect eukaryotes and bacteria.
Q:
Knowing the genome of Mu bacteriophage now enables researchers to locate where it incorporates into bacterial genomes.
Q:
By nature of its infectivity, M13 phage can be used in the laboratory to continually propagate a particular DNA sequence inside of Escherichia coli by simply culturing infected E. coli in LB.
Q:
Nonfilamentous bacteriophage often can escape its host without lysing, whereas filamentous phage normally induce cell lysis once replicated inside their host.
Q:
The diversity of genome type and the overall number of bacteriophage that infect Escherichia coli is numerous, but many other bacterial taxa that thrive in the environment are likely infected by a variety of phage as well.
Q:
Bacteriophage that have single-stranded genomes are specialized to minimize energy requirements because just one strand is necessary for replication.
Q:
Due to the genetic diversity of viruses and their lack of ribosomal RNA, nucleotide-based phylogeny studies are not applicable to virology.
Q:
One hypothesis on the origin of DNA points to RNA viruses evolving a modified nucleotide that is insensitive to ribonucleases.
Q:
Despite viruses require a living host's metabolism to replicate, it remains unclear whether viruses existed before living cells.
Q:
Varied transcription mechanisms distinguish the different DNA virus Baltimore classes, whereas varied translational mechanisms distinguish RNA viruses.
Q:
Viruses that contain positive-strand genomes are incompatible to share genetic elements other positive-strand genomes.
Q:
The Baltimore classification scheme is a useful way to categorize viruses based on their host infectivity.
Q:
Genomics analysis of recently isolated viruses indicate some viruses contain larger genomes than the some bacterial genomes.
Q:
To date, no virus that infects Archaea is known to have an RNA genome.
Q:
Viruses are known to infect Bacteria, but no virus has yet been found that infects Archaea.
Q:
Proteins made by a ribosome reading through a transcript's stop codon without their own discrete ribosome binding sites
A) are thought to be a primitive mechanism to avoid host defenses.
B) appear most abundant in archaeal viruses and relatively uncommon in bacteriophage.
C) suggest a relatively low level of protein product is essential for the virus due to its rare frequency.
D) create opportunities for viruses to make different capsid proteins.
Q:
In contrast to positive ssRNA viruses such as coronaviruses and polioviruses, the genome of retroviruses
A) lacks genes encoding for tRNA primers.
B) must first integrate into the host's genome before transcription.
C) is negative ssRNA.
D) lacks ribonuclease activity.
Q:
A drug designed to inhibit reverse transcriptase activity would target
A) coronaviruses and rhabdoviruses.
B) hepadnaviruses and retroviruses.
C) retroviruses.
D) viruses with RNA genomes.
Q:
Identifying proteases being essential for replication of a virus would suggest the virus
A) lyses its host following genome replication.
B) contains at least one polyprotein.
C) has a single-stranded RNA genome.
D) uses at least one set of overlapping genes.
Q:
The family of reoviruses contain dsRNA genomes that replicate from the template of ________ which makes it a ________ replication process.
A) only the positive ssRNA strand / conservative
B) only the positive ssRNA strand / semiconservative
C) both RNA strands /conservative
D) both RNA strands / semiconservative