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Q:
Using a host defective in proteases is likely to be necessary when engineering
A) a complete metabolic pathway requiring several different enzymes.
B) overproducing proteins.
C) production of a small protein.
D) transgenic animals with immune systems.
Q:
Cloning vectors can be distinguished from expression vectors by
A) carrying ori genes for replication of the cloned sequence.
B) having a multiple cloning site (MCS).
C) having a high copy number per cell.
D) lacking a promoter site upstream of the insertion site.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an example of synthetic biology?
A) assembling gene sequences together into genome and creating a living organism from it
B) creating a new metabolic pathway that produces a previously unidentified compound
C) developing a novel polyvalent vaccine
D) making Escherichia coli phototrophic
Q:
A poorly immunogenic vaccine often suggests the foreign proteins were not properly recognized by the immune system due to a lack of ________ necessary, which can also be engineered to occur with additional molecular manipulations.
A) complex folding
B) methylation
C) glucosylation
D) glycosylation
Q:
Recognizing pathogens that contain multiple unique proteins which enable the human immune system to recognize just one and mount an effective response has opened the door on development of some vaccines only being
A) attenuated carrier viruses.
B) monovalent.
C) subunit vaccines.
D) purified protein administered.
Q:
Polyvalent vaccines using vaccinia virus are highly favored by doctors and physicians but are especially challenging for those who develop them, because
A) coat proteins form a relatively rigid structure and do not allow much space for additional proteins to be expressed.
B) multiple foreign proteins simultaneously synthesized often disrupts each other's activity.
C) vaccinia and most other viruses engineered for vaccines contain only one restriction site for cloning in their genome.
D) virus genetic manipulation uses transfection, which is an inherently inefficient process.
Q:
The principle underlying how salmon were genetically engineered to grow faster is the
A) removal of a gene responsible for feeling full after eating.
B) replacement of inducible to constitutive hormone production.
C) resistance to bacterial infections which waste metabolic energy in the salmon to fight off.
D) addition of genes to enhance blood circulation and tissue development.
Q:
Some proteins overexpressed at high levels resulting in the formation of inclusion bodies can abolish the goal of producing large quantities of active protein. What could be done to minimize this issue?
A) Codon optimize the gene.
B) Decrease the number of biobricks in the vector.
C) Simultaneously produce intracellular chaperonins.
D) Switch to an expression host with a larger intracellular volume.
Q:
If a protein to be overexpressed is toxic to the expression host, it is best to select an expression vector that
A) is compatible with a binary vector able to be regulated.
B) is inducible.
C) has a relatively low copy number per cell.
D) prevents folding of the overexpressed protein into its toxic form.
Q:
Which construct would be MOST useful in studying translational control?
A) gene fusion
B) operon fusion
C) protein fusion
D) shuttle vector
Q:
Which of the following terms is used to describe a synthetic DNA fragment?
A) DNA cassette
B) DNA hybrid
C) recombinant DNA
D) artificial chromosome
Q:
The Ti plasmid is best suited for genetically manipulating
A) Agrobacterium spp.
B) fish.
C) plants.
D) viruses.
Q:
Type II restriction endonucleases
A) are heterodimers.
B) natively function to methylate specific nucleotides and prevent foreign DNA from being incorporated into the genome.
C) recognize nucleotide sequences that are palindromic.
D) require ATP energy to cleave dsDNA.
Q:
The enzyme that covalently links both strands of a vector and inserted DNA in molecular cloning is
A) DNA ligase.
B) DNA phosphatase.
C) DNA hydrolase.
D) DNA transferase.
Q:
What makes eukaryotic transcripts easier to isolate than transcripts in bacteria?
A) Eukaryotic transcripts are not methylated but their genes are often methylated.
B) Larger transcript size in eukaryotes enables easy size-selection methods.
C) mRNA is polyadenylated in eukaryotes.
D) Transcripts are the most abundant RNAs in eukaryotes.
Q:
After digesting a DNA sequence, a restriction endonuclease can generate
A) blunt ends.
B) overhangs.
C) sticky ends.
D) blunt ends, overhangs, or sticky ends.
Q:
A shuttle vector is most useful for
A) engineering a complete metabolic pathway.
B) identifying the localization of a protein.
C) knocking out a gene by cassette displacement.
D) making a foreign protein in a mammalian cell.
Q:
Which of those below is NOT an important consideration when designing a fusion protein construct?
A) Avoid hybridization of the fusion gene in the artificial construct.
B) Reading frame is the same for both the fusion gene and reporter gene.
C) Transcriptional start and stop signals are shared.
D) Translational start and stop signals are shared.
Q:
The principle behind a nucleic acid probe design is that the probe itself must contain
A) a key complementary part of the target gene sequence of interest.
B) all of the nucleotide sequence of the gene of interest to conclusively identify the gene.
C) an antibody to specifically bind to the gene of interest.
D) at least three separate complementary regions of the gene of interest.
Q:
Which of those listed below is LEAST similar in what is measured and concluded?
A) fluorescence in situ hybridization
B) GFP fusion protein
C) Northern blot
D) RT-PCR
Q:
Which statement is TRUE?
A) YACs are more likely than BACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement.
B) BACs are more likely than YACs to undergo recombination and rearrangement.
C) YACs and BACs undergo recombination and rearrangement at about the same rate.
D) It is impossible to state with any certainty whether YACs or BACs are more likely to undergo recombination and rearrangement, because environmental factors play a major role in the probability of one or the other occurring.
Q:
Inserting a kanamycin resistance cassette into a catabolic operon to confirm the gene is essential in degradation of a particular compound would involve all of the following EXCEPT
A) a reporter gene.
B) ligation.
C) recombination.
D) transformation.
Q:
What molecular mechanism/feature does site-directed mutagenesis exploit to introduce a mutation at a specific site?
A) flanking complementary bound nucleotides permit non-complementary base pairing
B) methylated nucleotides disrupt DNA polymerase's proofreading
C) nucleotide substitution when one is depleted
D) transposase-induced base pair changes
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a common step in creating a genomic library?
A) Fragment DNA into small segments.
B) Hybridize DNA sequences to form inserts of a target size range.
C) Ligate DNA into vectors.
D) Transform the vectors into a host.
Q:
To estimate the total concentration of a beneficial bacterial species in yogurt, ________ would provide the quickest results.
A) fluorescence in situ hybridization
B) qPCR
C) RT-PCR
D) a Southern blot
Q:
At which time period(s) during PCR thermocycling is/are hottest in temperature?
A) during DNA denaturation
B) during primer annealing
C) during primer extension/elongation
D) Both the first and last cycles are hotter in temperature than all other cycles.
Q:
Which of the following sequences would be cleaved by a type II restriction endonuclease?
A) TTGCCGA
AACGGCT
B) GGGGGGG
CCCCCCCC
C) GTAATG
CATTAC
D) GAATTC
CTTAAG
Q:
A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) copies an individual gene segment in vitro with a(n) ________ primer(s).
A) individual RNA
B) individual DNA
C) pair of RNA
D) pair of DNA
Q:
Which objective would be best to use a Southern blot rather than a Northern blot?
A) Determine if a gene is present in a genome.
B) Discover gene function.
C) Identify regulatory gene-protein interactions.
D) Quantify expression profiles of a gene.
Q:
To verify a gene was cloned into a vector successfully, sequencing the vector as well as ________ are commonly performed.
A) agarose gel electrophoresis
B) fluorescence in situ hybridization
C) protein purification
D) northern blots
Q:
The genes encoding luciferase, green fluorescent protein (GFP), and β-galactosidase are typically used in cloning as
A) transcription regulators.
B) global control genes.
C) promoter sequences.
D) reporter genes.
Q:
What type of vector can replicate and be maintained stably in two (or more) unrelated host organisms?
A) virus
B) expression
C) shuttle
D) integrating
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a type II restriction endonuclease?
A) cleavage product can be either blunt or sticky ended but is always the same for an individual enzyme
B) recognizes a specific palindromic site for cleavage
C) recognition site length varies among enzymes but is always the same for an individual enzyme
D) unable to cleave methylated DNA
Q:
One of the more formidable obstacles to mammalian gene cloning is the presence of
A) introns.
B) exons.
C) repressors.
D) integrators.
Q:
A(n) ________ gene is a gene that encodes a protein that is easy to detect and assay.
A) encoder
B) translational
C) reporter
D) recorder
Q:
Expression vectors are designed to ensure that ________ can be efficiently ________.
A) mRNA / transcribed
B) DNA / transcribed
C) mRNA / translated
D) DNA / translated
Q:
To discover a catabolic gene cluster, cloning large sequences of approximately 40 kbp requires the utility of
A) bacterial artificial chromosomes (BACs).
B) cosmids or fosmids.
C) a eukaryotic host to house the large foreign DNA.
D) multiple gene fusions.
Q:
Detecting a specific protein with an antibody is considered a(n) ________ method.
A) selection
B) screening
C) isolation
D) duplication
Q:
If a foreign gene is cloned into an expression host, it is important that the host itself
A) not produce the protein being studied.
B) produce the protein in larger amounts than the vector.
C) repress the genetic expression being studied.
D) produce signal proteins to tag the host protein.
Q:
A plasmid may
A) replicate independently of the chromosome.
B) be transferred cell-to-cell during conjugation.
C) be integrated into the chromosome.
D) replicate independently of the chromosome, integrate into the chromosome, or be transferred cell-to-cell during conjugation.
Q:
Lysogeny probably carries a strong selective advantage for the host cell because it
A) prevents cell lysis.
B) confers resistance to infection by viruses of the same type.
C) confers resistance to infection by viruses of a different type (or strain).
D) confers resistance to infection by many virus types and prevent cell lysis.
Q:
The minimal amount of genetic information required for specialized transduction would include
A) the att region.
B) the cos site.
C) a helper phage.
D) the att region, cos site, and a helper phage.
Q:
The positions of genes on a genetic map are marked according to
A) degrees.
B) nanometers.
C) radians.
D) minutes.
Q:
Horizontal gene transfer in Archaea
A) is infrequent in nature and therefore difficult to use for genetic studies in the laboratory.
B) has not been documented, thus all genetic studies of archaeaare done via genomic sequencing.
C) frequently occurs in nature and has been used to perform genetic studies in the laboratory as well.
D) frequently occurs in nature, but there are very few laboratory studies because archaea do not cause human disease.
Q:
You have performed the following mating experiment using Hfr and F- strains of Escherichia coli:
Hfr (thr+ leu+ gal+ strs) F- (thr- leu- gal- strr). Which of the following selective media would you use to score recombinant colonies?
A) minimal medium
B) minimal medium + streptomycin
C) minimal medium + threonine
D) minimal medium + streptomycin + threonine
Q:
Consider the following experiment. First, large populations of two mutant strains of Escherichia coli are mixed, each requiring a different, single amino acid. After plating them onto a minimal medium, 45 colonies grew. Which of the following may explain this result?
A) The colonies may be due to back mutation (reversion).
B) The colonies may be due to recombination.
C) Either A or B is possible.
D) Neither A nor B is possible.
Q:
Which of the following proteins is NOT required for homologous recombination?
A) Hfr
B) RecA
C) proteins having helicase activity
D) endonuclease
Q:
The uptake of DNA released from a cell is ________, while transfer of DNA with cell-to-cell contact would most likely result in ________.
A) transformation / conjugation
B) transduction / conjugation
C) conjugation / transformation
D) transformation / transduction
Q:
Which of the following methods may introduce foreign DNA into a recipient?
A) transformation
B) transduction
C) conjugation
D) transformation, transduction, and conjugation
Q:
Ionizing radiation does NOT include
A) gamma rays.
B) UV rays.
C) X-rays.
D) cosmic rays.
Q:
The killing of cells by UV irradiation involves
A) absorption at 260 nm by proteins only.
B) absorption at 260 nm by RNA only.
C) formation of pyrimidine dimers.
D) formation of purine dimers.
Q:
The mutagens 2-aminopurine and 5-bromouracil are examples of
A) alkylating agents.
B) nucleotide base analogs.
C) chemicals reacting with DNA.
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q:
Which process listed below does NOT require homologous recombination to maintain the new genetic material in the recipient cell?
A) conjugation of an F+ plasmid
B) gene transfer through a genetic transfer agent
C) transduction by a dsDNA phage Mu
D) transformation of a linear piece of DNA
Q:
A mutation that readily reverses to restore the original parental type would most likely be due to a(n)
A) deletion.
B) insertion.
C) point mutation.
D) frameshift mutation.
Q:
Consider a mutation in which the change is from UAC to UAU. Both codons specify the amino acid tyrosine. Which type of point mutation is this?
A) silent mutation
B) nonsense mutation
C) missense mutation
D) frameshift mutation
Q:
A mutant that has a nutritional requirement for growth is an example of a(n)
A) autotroph.
B) auxotroph.
C) heterotroph.
D) organotroph.
Q:
How might mutations in the dnaQ sequence, whose enzyme is involved in DNA proofreading, be beneficial for a microbe in a highly competitive and dynamic community?
Q:
The CRISPR system is said to protect or preserve genome integrity in prokaryotic cells by acting as a type of "immune system." Explain how the CRISPR system works and its limitations.
Q:
A mutant you made in the laboratory with 5-bromouracil suddenly regains the wild-type phenotype. You discuss this phenomenon with your advisor and colleagues, and they suggest you try transposon mutagenesis to avoid this problem and create stable mutants. Why would mutants created with 5-bromouracil be more likely to regain the wild-type phenotype than mutants created via transposon mutagenesis?
Q:
How does the SOS system simultaneously fix damage DNA and increase the mutation rate? How does the SOS system increase the survival of microorganisms?
Q:
Why is the outcome of a base-pair substitution mutation variable? List and describe the possible outcomes of a base-pair substitution mutation in your answer.
Q:
Discuss the importance of homologous recombination and transposition in natural horizontal gene transfer and evolution. Be sure to define all of the terms you use and connect them together logically in your answer.
Q:
Consider the map shown below of a portion of a prokaryotic genome. How might the elements indicated affect the stability and structure of the genome? Assume that IS2 encodes for a transposase that catalyzes conservative transposition. Re-draw the genome map to illustrate your prediction if necessary.
| IS2 |__gene1 gene2 gene3 | IS2 | geneA geneB geneC| IS2 | geneD | IS2 | geneX
Q:
Compare and contrast generalized transduction with specialized transduction.
Q:
Explain how electroporation works and the significance of the procedure for genetic experiments.
Q:
Design an experiment (including controls) to determine if a new kitchen chemical cleaner is mutagenic. Include in your answer how you would interpret the results.
Q:
Archaea have a unique form of conjugation involving cytoplasmic bridges for bidirectional transfer of DNA.
Q:
A typical mutation rate for a bacterium is in the range of 10-6 to 10-9 per kbp.
Q:
Intercalating agents, like acridine orange and ethidium bromide, lead to mutagenesis by pushing DNA base pairs apart, which can lead to insertions or deletions.
Q:
Penicillin selection is a positive selection for the isolation of mutants with growth factor requirements.
Q:
All Hfr strains possess an F factor integrated into the host chromosome.
Q:
Toxigenicity in Corynebacterium diphtheriae is due to phage conversion.
Q:
Insertion sequences are found on both ends of transposons and encode for transposase.
Q:
Proteins and nucleic acids absorb light maximally at 260 nm; hence, proteins protect cells from UV effects.
Q:
Lysogeny is essential for the virulence of many pathogenic bacterial strains.
Q:
Many Bacteria isolated from nature are natural lysogens.
Q:
In specialized transduction, as exemplified by lambda phage in E. coli, transduction occurs at high efficiency for only a restricted group of genes near the insertion site of lambda.
Q:
In specialized transduction, virtually any genetic marker can be transferred from donor to recipient.
Q:
In transformation experiments using a variety of Bacteria, it has been noted that essentially all of the cells in a population can become competent.
Q:
Transposons can be found on many genetic elements, including plasmids, chromosomes, and viral genomes.