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Q:
In its normal form, part of the gene which controls Huntington's disease repeats its sequence of bases:
a. under ten times.
b. between approximately 11-24 times.
c. at least 36 times.
d. approximately 75 or 80 times.
Q:
Which of the following can be used as a presymptomatic test for Huntington's disease?
a. differences in blood flow between the left and right hemispheres
b. examination of chromosome 4
c. a blood test that measures the concentration of phenylalanine
d. tests of the P300 component of an evoked potential
Q:
What is the relationship of genetics to Huntington's disease?
a. It is caused by a dominant gene on the X chromosome.
b. It is caused by a dominant gene on chromosome 4.
c. It is caused by a recessive gene on one of the autosomal chromosomes.
d. There is no evidence linking Huntington's disease to any gene.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true of Huntington's disease?
a. It is controlled by a gene on chromosome 4.
b. It is possible to predict with nearly 100% accuracy who will get the disease.
c. It is generally treated with L-dopa.
d. The average age of onset is around 40 years.
Q:
What is the usual age of onset for Huntington's disease?
a. 5-7 years old
b. 12-20 years old
c. 30-50 years old
d. 65 years or older
Q:
The psychological disorders that accompany Huntington's disease could be mistaken for which of the following?
a. Schizophrenia
b. Dissociative identity disorder
c. Antisocial personality disorder
d. Bipolar disorder
Q:
Which parts of the brain deteriorate most strongly in Huntington's disease?
a. Pathways of neurons containing the neurotransmitter dopamine
b. The cerebellum and medulla
c. The caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus
d. The hippocampus and amygdala
Q:
Which of the following is TRUE of Huntington's disease?
a. There is a loss of dopamine neurons in the substantia nigra.
b. The symptoms can be effectively treated.
c. The earlier the onset, the more rapid the deterioration.
d. It is caused by environmental toxins.
Q:
What is a common symptom of Huntington's disease?
a. Rapid fatigue of the muscles
b. Loss of both sensation and motor control in certain limbs
c. Twitches, tremors, and writhing that interfere with voluntary movement
d. Impairment of saccadic eye movements and rapid alternating movements
Q:
What is especially limited in a patient with Huntington's disease?
a. The ability to learn and improve new movements
b. Controlling aim and duration of eye movements
c. Reflexes
d. Short-term memory
Q:
Early symptoms of Huntington's disease usually include:
a. paralysis.
b. jerky arm movements and body tremors.
c. rapid fatigue.
d. difficulty coordinating the left hand with the right hand.
Q:
As an option for treating Parkinson's patients, transplantation of stem cells appears to be:
a. the most effective technique.
b. more effective in late stages of the disease.
c. modestly effective, as with other treatments.
d. not at all effective.
Q:
Transplanting brain tissue into Parkinson's patients would most likely be successful if:
a. the patient is older.
b. they are female.
c. the brain tissue comes from rats.
d. the transplant was accompanied by neurotrophins.
Q:
Immature cells that are capable of developing into a variety of cells are known as:
a. stem cells.
b. neurotrophins.
c. L-dopa cells.
d. mitochondria.
Q:
Of the following, which is considered LEAST promising as a treatment for Parkinson's disease?
a. high-frequency electrical stimulation of the globus pallidus
b. adrenal gland transplants
c. antioxidants
d. neurotrophins
Q:
L-Dopa, a common treatment for Parkinson's disease, is a drug that:
a. inhibits activity of the immune system.
b. increases the brain's production of dopamine.
c. blocks the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
d. facilitates the passage of sodium across neuron membranes.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment for Parkinson's disease?
a. Drugs that directly stimulate dopamine receptors
b. MPTP
c. Neurotrophins
d. Antioxidant drugs
Q:
L-dopa is most effective:
a. in the early to intermediate stages of Parkinson's disease.
b. in the late stages of Parkinson's disease.
c. for females.
d. for either the very young or the very old.
Q:
Which of the following is a limitation of using L-dopa for Parkinson's disease?
a. It only helps those who are in the later stages.
b. It doesn't cross the blood-brain barrier.
c. It can contribute to a greater loss of dopamine neurons.
d. It blocks glutamate receptors.
Q:
The reason why a dopamine pill is ineffective for treating Parkinson's disease is that:
a. there is already too much dopamine present.
b. dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier.
c. it would have to be the size of a baseball to be effective.
d. it is too expensive.
Q:
What characteristic of L-dopa makes it an effective treatment for Parkinson's disease?
a. L-dopa has a negative ionic charge.
b. L-dopa dissolves readily in water but poorly in fats.
c. L-dopa binds tightly to both glutamate and GABA synapses.
d. L-dopa can cross the blood-brain barrier.
Q:
What is the most common drug in the treatment for Parkinson's disease?
a. haloperidol
b. physostigmine
c. Dilantin
d. L-dopa
Q:
Cigarette smoking correlates with a decreased risk of:
a. Huntington's disease.
b. sleep apnea.
c. Parkinson's disease.
d. myasthenia gravis.
Q:
One thing that many different causes of Parkinson's disease share in common is that they:
a. are all curable.
b. cause damage to the mitochondria.
c. increase dopamine release.
d. occur more often in women than men.
Q:
Cigarette smoking and coffee drinking ____ the risk of Parkinson's disease, and marijuana ____ the risk.
a. increase, increases
b. increase, decreases
c. decrease, decreases
d. decrease, increases
Q:
If Parkinson's disease were caused primarily by exposure to herbicides and pesticides, we should expect to find:
a. near epidemics in some geographical regions.
b. greater incidence in people under 50 than in older people.
c. greater incidence in women than in men.
d. greater incidence in left-handers than in right-handers.
Q:
It is believed that exposure to herbicides and pesticides is:
a. the primary cause of Parkinson's disease.
b. a contributing factor in some cases of Huntington's disease.
c. the primary cause of myasthenia gravis.
d. a contributing factor in some cases of Parkinson's disease.
Q:
MPTP and some chemicals in herbicides:
a. can damage cells of the substantia nigra.
b. can cause Huntington's disease.
c. are illegal designer drugs.
d. are effective treatments for Parkinson's disease.
Q:
What is the effect of MPTP?
a. It kills the neurons that release dopamine.
b. It suppresses activity of the immune system.
c. It is converted in the brain to dopamine.
d. It inhibits the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
Q:
Although Parkinson's disease is usually limited to old people, it has occurred in a small number of young people that:
a. used a designer drug.
b. used cocaine.
c. lived near a nuclear power plant.
d. were on low-protein diets.
Q:
At least some cases of Parkinson's disease are apparently linked to what cause?
a. A recessive gene on chromosome 4
b. The accumulation of aluminum in the cerebral cortex and hypothalamus
c. A chronic lack of vitamin B-1
d. A toxic substance found in a heroin substitute
Q:
Genetic factors have their greatest impact on Parkinson's disease in cases of:
a. early onset of the disease.
b. late onset of the disease.
c. first-born children.
d. children with older brothers and sisters.
Q:
Although several genes have been found to be more common among people with Parkinson's disease, these genes are:
a. more common in men than women.
b. more common in women than men.
c. small contributors to the incidence of late-onset Parkinson's disease.
d. large contributors to the incidence of late-onset Parkinson's disease.
Q:
The role of heredity in late-onset Parkinson's disease:
a. equals that of early onset Parkinson's disease.
b. is probably not as great as with early onset Parkinson's disease.
c. is greater for DZ twins that MZ twins.
d. is greater for females than males.
Q:
Having an identical twin with Parkinson's disease greatly increases the other twin's likelihood of also getting Parkinson's disease if the:
a. first twin had late-onset Parkinson's disease.
b. first twin had early-onset Parkinson's disease.
c. twins are male.
d. twins are female.
Q:
Symptoms of Parkinson's disease emerge only after the number of neurons in the substantia nigra decreases to what level?
a. To the point where there are no cells remaining
b. Less than 20% of the original total
c. Less than 50% of the original total
d. Less than 90% of the original total
Q:
Many of the symptoms of Parkinson's disease apparently relate to:
a. an imbalance between activity in the left and right hemispheres.
b. a decrease in metabolic activity in the cerebellum.
c. loss of arousal in the cortex.
d. increased excitation of neurons in the substantia nigra.
Q:
In Parkinson's disease, which pathway in the brain degenerates?
a. Basal ganglia to cerebellum
b. Substantia nigra to caudate nucleus and putamen
c. Cerebellum to spinal cord
d. Cerebral cortex to spinal cord
Q:
Most research on Parkinson's disease has focused on which part of the brain?
a. Globus pallidus
b. Substantia nigra
c. Thalamus
d. Cortex
Q:
A loss of dopamine activity leads to ____ stimulation of the motor cortex and ____ onset of movements.
a. less; faster
b. more; faster
c. less; slower
d. more; slower
Q:
The immediate cause of Parkinson's disease is the:
a. net increase in the excitatory output from the globus pallidus.
b. gradual, progressive death of neurons in the substantia nigra.
c. immediate, mass death of neurons releasing acetylcholine.
d. accumulation of amyloid-beta in neurons.
Q:
Parkinson's disease is caused by degeneration of a pathway of neurons that releases which neurotransmitter?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Substance P
c. Serotonin
d. Dopamine
Q:
Which of the following is NOT common in people with Parkinson's disease?
a. Difficulty initiating voluntary movements
b. Slowness of movements
c. Rigidity and tremors
d. Outbursts of emotions
Q:
Parkinson's disease patients, who usually have trouble walking, can walk surprisingly well when they:
a. have their eyes closed.
b. walk backwards.
c. count their steps.
d. are following a parade.
Q:
Most Parkinson's patients suffer depression:
a. only during the late stages of the disease.
b. as a reaction to the muscle failure they suffer.
c. as one of the symptoms of the disease.
d. if they are under 50 years of age when the disease strikes.
Q:
What is one of the main symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
a. Rapid fatigue of the muscles
b. Loss of saccadic eye movements
c. Difficulty initiating movements
d. Inability to coordinate speech with movements
Q:
With experience, the motor skills required to drive a car become more automatic over time mostly because of changes in the:
a. cerebellum.
b. primary motor cortex.
c. basal ganglia.
d. spinal cord.
Q:
Cerebellum is to ____ as basal ganglia are to ____.
a. clumsy; paralysis
b. initiation; stopping
c. gross muscle function; fine motor coordination
d. timing; voluntary movements
Q:
The basal ganglia work together to initiate movement by:
a. ceasing to inhibit movement.
b. inhibiting thalamic nuclei.
c. exciting cerebellar nuclei.
d. exciting spinal cord nuclei.
Q:
Which basal ganglia structure(s) is/are important for receiving input from sensory areas of the thalamus and the cerebral cortex?
a. globus pallidus and putamen
b. globus pallidus and caudate nucleus
c. caudate nucleus and putamen
d. globus pallidus
Q:
Most of the output from the globus pallidus to the thalamus releases:
a. glutamate.
b. ACh.
c. dopamine.
d. GABA
Q:
The structure composed of the caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus is the:
a. basal ganglia.
b. limbic system.
c. cerebellum.
d. sympathetic nervous system.
Q:
The number of Purkinje cells activated determines the ____ of the resulting movement.
a. speed
b. power
c. duration
d. accuracy
Q:
The greater the number of Purkinje cells activated, the:
a. less the collective duration of the response.
b. greater the collective duration of the response.
c. greater the strength of the response.
d. less the strength of the response.
Q:
Which widely branching cells are responsible for all of the output from the cerebellar cortex to the nuclei of the cerebellum?
a. parallel fibers
b. Purkinje cells
c. putamen cells
d. saccade cells
Q:
How do parallel fibers in the cerebellum control the duration of a response?
a. By determining the number of Purkinje cells that fire in sequence
b. By altering the velocity of action potentials from Purkinje cells
c. By determining which one of all the available Purkinje cells becomes active
d. By passing information back and forth between one Purkinje cell and another
Q:
Purkinje cells are:
a. proprioceptors.
b. flat cells in sequential planes.
c. nuclei in the central cerebellum.
d. axons parallel to one another.
Q:
The cerebellum appears to be critical for:
a. motor behaviors only.
b. certain aspects of attention.
c. judging which tone is louder.
d. controlling the force of a movement.
Q:
In a study, functional MRI measured cerebellar activity. It was found that the cerebellum was quite active when individuals:
a. lifted objects.
b. remembered seeing faces.
c. made reflexive movements.
d. felt objects with both hands to decide whether they were the same.
Q:
The cerebellum is most important for any process that requires:
a. precise timing.
b. control of muscle strength.
c. comparison between the left and right hemispheres.
d. detecting the intensity of a stimulus.
Q:
Suppose you want to DECREASE the aggressive behavior of an animal, and all you are allowed to use is a nutritional supplement. Which might be a good choice?a. increase tryptophanb. increase phenylalaninec. decrease thiamined. decrease lecithin
Q:
High levels of phenylalanine in the diet impair the synthesis of serotonin because it:
a. causes the breakdown of serotonin in the vesicles.
b. competes with an active transport mechanism shared by tryptophan.
c. interferes with the enzyme that synthesizes serotonin.
d. prevents the reuptake of serotonin.
Q:
Phenylalanine might affect the probability of aggressive behavior by:
a. converting to testosterone in the body.
b. converting to L-dopa in the body.
c. interfering with the production of serotonin.
d. interfering with the production of GABA.
Q:
Why do certain people suspect that a diet high in corn may lead to an increase in aggressive behavior?
a. Corn is low in tryptophan and high in phenylalanine.
b. Corn contains a chemical similar to testosterone.
c. Corn is deficient in thiamine and other B vitamins.
d. Corn is high in fats and contains no proteins or amino acids.
Q:
One study found that many young men showed an increase in aggressive behavior a few hours after eating a diet:
a. high in tryptophan.
b. high in both tryptophan and phenylalanine.
c. low in tryptophan and high in phenylalanine.
d. low in both tryptophan and phenylalanine.
Q:
Tryptophan hydroxylase is the enzyme that converts ____ into ____.
a. serotonin, 5-HIAA
b. 5-HIAA, serotonin
c. serotonin, tryptophan
d. tryptophan, serotonin
Q:
The precursor for the synthesis of serotonin is:
a. tryptophan.
b. phenylalanine.
c. monoamine.
d. norepinephrine.
Q:
Which of the following has been associated with an increased probability of suicide attempts?
a. high dopamine turnover
b. high GABA turnover
c. low serotonin turnover
d. low substance-P turnover
Q:
Blood and urine levels of which chemicals are related to a history of violent suicide attempts?
a. high amount of serotonin turnover
b. low amount of serotonin turnover
c. high levels of L-dopa
d. low levels of L-dopa
Q:
Many studies have found that violent criminals and arsonists released from prison had a greater probability of committing other violent crimes if they:
a. underwent surgical removal of the amygdala.
b. ate diets low in corn.
c. had lower than normal serotonin turnover.
d. had higher than normal serotonin turnover.
Q:
One explanation for why having genes for low serotonin turnover may be beneficial in monkeys is that:
a. a low level of aggression is best for survival.
b. an intermediate level of aggression prevents them from being too fearful or too violent.
c. most highly aggressive monkeys get everything they want.
d. serotonin causes cancer.
Q:
According to a number of animal studies, under which of the following conditions is the probability of violent behavior greatest?
a. low acetylcholine turnover
b. high acetylcholine turnover
c. low serotonin turnover
d. high serotonin turnover
Q:
To estimate the amount of serotonin turnover in the brain, investigators measure the amount of ____ in the blood or cerebrospinal fluid.
a. COMT
b. MPTP
c. 5-HIAA
d. MAO
Q:
The concentration of 5-HIAA in the blood, cerebrospinal fluid, or urine provides an estimate of:
a. serotonin stores.
b. serotonin turnover.
c. dopamine stores.
d. dopamine turnover.
Q:
The term "serotonin turnover" refers to the amount of serotonin that is:
a. released at synapses and resynthesized.
b. currently present in the brain.
c. radioactively labeled.
d. converted into another transmitter.
Q:
In a study of serotonin turnover in male monkeys, it was found that those with:
a. low levels were most submissive.
b. high levels had the most scars.
c. high levels were the most aggressive.
d. low levels were usually dead by age six.
Q:
What potential advantage does a moderately aggressive monkey possess?
a. They are more likely to get mates and food.
b. They have better memories of other monkeys they have defeated.
c. They are less depressed.
d. Their immune system becomes stronger with each fight.
Q:
If a monkey with low serotonin turnover survives, they are more likely to:
a. be extremely fearful.
b. be submissive.
c. have fewer offspring.
d. have dominant status.
Q:
A study administering testosterone to women found which of these effects?
A Testosterone increased their violent dreams.
B Testosterone decreased their ability to recognize facial expressions of emotion.
C Testosterone caused them to report feeling angry for no apparent reason.
D Testosterone made them want to play pool, drink beer, and spit.
Q:
Of the following choices, the most likely explanation for how testosterone may be associated with violent behavior is that it:
a. may induce greater attention to situations of aggression and conflict.
b. creates greater muscle mass.
c. reduces inhibitions.
d. inhibits cells in the amygdala.