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Q:
Even though a test is both reliable and valid, it is not necessarily useful. The _______ are designed to estimate the percentage of future employees who will be successful on the job if an organization uses a particular test.
a. Taylor-Russell tables
b. Expectancy charts
c. Lawshe tables
d. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility formula
Q:
Which of the following sources contain reliability and validity information on various tests?
a. Radford Guide to Reliability
b. California Index
c. Validity Studies
d. Mental Measurements Yearbook
Q:
Setting your clock ten minutes fast will affect the _______ of the clock.
a. reliability
b. validity
c. psychometrics
d. speed
Q:
Barnum statements are most associated with:
a. known-group validity
b. face validity
c. concurrent validity
d. construct validity
Q:
If test takers do not believe that items on a test measure what they are supposed to measure then the test probably lacks:
a. face validity
b. concurrent validity
c. criterion validity
d. reliability
Q:
_______ validity refers to the extent to which a test appears to be valid.
a. Content
b. Criterion
c. Construct
d. Face
Q:
If a police applicant is asked questions about her favorite hobbies and religious beliefs, she may feel the test is not valid. In this case, her impression demonstrates the importance of ______ validity.
a. construct
b. criterion
c. concurrent
d. face
Q:
A researcher correlates scores on a test (Test 1) with scores on other tests (Test 2 and Test 3). The analysis demonstrates that the scores on Test 1 correlate highly with scores on Test 2 but do not correlate with scores on Test 3. This type of analysis is used to determine:
a. content validity
b. construct validity
c. concurrent validity
d. predictive validity
Q:
Construct validity is usually determined by correlating scores on a test with _______.
a. performance on the job
b. the items within the test
c. scores from similar tests
d. correlational analysis is not used
Q:
_______ is based on the assumption that tests that predict a particular component of one job should predict performance on the same component for another job.
a. Content validity
b. Validity generalization
c. Synthetic validity
d. Face validity
Q:
If a small police department uses a cognitive ability test because a meta-analysis indicated cognitive ability is the best predictor of performance in the police academy, it is:
a. breaking the law
b. using the Taylor-Russell method
c. going to see a reduction in quality
d. using validity generalization
Q:
______ is the basis for validity generalization.
a. Face validity
b. Known-group validity
c. Meta-analysis
d. Utility
Q:
The extent to which a test found valid for a job in one location is valid for the same job in another location refers to the concept of _______.
a. the cross over effect
b. temporal stability
c. validity generalization
d. known group validity
Q:
The _______ of performance scores makes obtaining a significant validity coefficient more difficult with a concurrent validity design.
a. variety
b. restricted range
c. heterogeneous nature
d. cost
Q:
With a _______ validity design, the test is administered to a group of job applicants who are going to be hired. The test scores, which are not used in the actual hiring decision, are then compared to a future measure of job performance.
a. concurrent
b. predictive
c. content
d. face
Q:
With a __________ validity design, the test is administered to a group of employees who are already on the job.
a. concurrent
b. predictive
c. content
d. face
Q:
_______ validity is a measure which refers to the extent to which a test score is related to some measure of job performance.
a. Content
b. Construct
c. Criterion
d. Concurrent
Q:
In industry, _____ is used to establish the content validity of selection tests or test batteries.
a. job analysis
b. correlational analysis
c. job evaluation
d. an experiment
Q:
The extent to which tests or test items sample the content that they are supposed to measure refers MOST specifically to:
a. face validity
b. content validity
c. construct validity
d. criterion validity
Q:
The extent to which tests or test items sample what they are supposed to measure is related to the measure's _______ validity.
a. content
b. construct
c. criterion
d. concurrent
Q:
If we use the weight of an infant to predict the subsequent performance of the infant in college, the weight measure is probably:
a. reliable and valid
b. reliable but not valid
c. not reliable but valid
d. not reliable and not valid
Q:
_______ is an issue especially in projective or subjective tests in which there is no one correct answer.
a. Internal validity
b. Test-retest reliability
c. Scorer reliability
d. Item homogeneity
Q:
The Spearman-Brown prophecy formula is used to adjust the correlation in which of the following reliability estimate methods?
a. Test-retest method
b. Alternate form method
c. Counterbalancing method
d. Split-half method
Q:
An industrial/organizational psychologist correlates the responses to the even numbered items on a selection test with the responses to the odd-numbered items from the same test. Which of the following answers BEST describes the concern of the psychologist?
a. Parallel form reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Scorer reliability
Q:
When computing internal reliability, _____ is used for dichotomous items and _____ is used for interval and ratio items.
a. coefficient alpha / K-R 20
b. coefficient alpha / Spearman-Brown
c. K-R 20 / coefficient alpha
d. Spearman-Brown / coefficient alpha
Q:
To ask if all of the items measure the same thing, or do they measure different constructs, is related to ________.
a. internal validity
b. test-retest reliability
c. scorer reliability
d. item homogeneity
Q:
In general, the longer the test, the higher its _______.
a. internal validity
b. external validity
c. internal reliability
d. external reliability
Q:
When the two scores from alternate forms of a test are correlated and found to be similar, the test is said to have ________.
a. temporal stability
b. internal consistency
c. form stability
d. version consistency
Q:
The process of counterbalancing test-taking order is used in which method of estimating reliability?
a. Test-retest reliability
b. Alternate-forms reliability
c. Internal reliability
d. All of the above use counterbalancing
Q:
Test-retest reliability taps ____ stability.
a. form
b. temporal
c. item
d. score
Q:
A student takes the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) as a requirement to get into college. Her score on the test is 600. Three weeks later, she is asked to take the identical test again. This time she scores 500. This inconsistency in scores is an issue of:
a. internal reliability
b. parallel forms reliability
c. test-retest reliability
d. form stability
Q:
There are three major ways to determine whether a test is reliable. With the _______ method, several people each take the same test twice.
a. repeat reliability
b. test-retest reliability
c. dual reliability
d. alternate forms reliability
Q:
_______ is the extent to which a score from a test is stable and free from error.
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Psychometrics
d. Stratification
Q:
Even though references are commonly used to screen and select employees, they have not been successful in predicting future employee success. The average uncorrected validity coefficient for references and performance is:
a. .00
b. .18
c. .32
d. .57
Q:
If an employer does not check an applicant's references and the applicant molests a child after being hired, the employer could be charged with:
a. negligent reference
b. defamation
c. tort reform
d. negligent hiring
Q:
Which of the following is good advice in asking for a letter of recommendation?
a. Provide your reference with a copy of your resume
b. Give your reference plenty of advance notice before the letter is due
c. Choose references who can provide information from multiple perspectives
d. All three are good advice
Q:
Because it is not uncommon for applicants to engage in resume fraud, references and letters of recommendation are used to:
a. confirm details on a resume
b. check for outside interests and habits
c. check for discipline problems
d. discover new applicant information
Q:
The process of confirming the accuracy of information provided by the applicant is called a:
a. reference
b. reference check
c. letter of recommendation
d. trait evaluation
Q:
In psychology, it is commonly believed that the best predictor of future performance is:
a. results from a psychological test
b. present performance
c. past performance
d. asking the person if they can do the job
Q:
What are the four standards to use when considering biodata items?
Q:
What are five common assessment center exercises?
Q:
What are the three major aptitude categories?
Q:
What are the Big 5 personality dimensions?
Q:
What are the common types of psychological tests used in employee selection?
Q:
What are the three main reasons for leniency in references?
Q:
What are the problems associated with using references to predict performance?
Q:
What are the reasons for using references and recommendations?
Q:
Which of the following have the highest level of adverse impact?
a. Cognitive ability and GPA
b. Cognitive ability and integrity tests
c. Integrity tests and personality inventories
d. Integrity tests and GPA
Q:
Which of the Big 5 personality dimensions is the best predictor of employee performance?
a. Openness
b. Agreeableness
c. Conscientiousness
d. Emotional stability
Q:
Which of the following has both high validity and low adverse impact?
a. Cognitive ability tests
b. Integrity tests
c. Education
d. Personality inventories
Q:
Which of the following is the best predictor of training proficiency?
a. Cognitive ability
b. Experience
c. Education
d. Vocational interest
Q:
Which of the following is the least useful predictor of future performance?
a. Biodata
b. Interest inventories
c. Assessment centers
d. Cognitive ability tests
Q:
When personnel professionals are concerned with adverse impact or invasion of privacy associated with a test, they are assessing the:
a. cost
b. scoring methods
c. reliability
d. potential for legal problems
Q:
Most drugs can be detected for ______ after use.
a. 8 hours
b. 2-3 days
c. 2-3 weeks
d. 2-3 months
Q:
In recent years, the percentage of applicants failing drug tests has:
a. remained the same
b. increased slightly
c. greatly increased
d. decreased
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true about drug testing?
a. Many organizations use drug testing
b. Illegal drug users are absent more often
c. Drug testing is not accurate
d. Applicants consider drug testing to be fair
Q:
_______ testing certainly is one of the most controversial testing methods used by personnel professionals.
a. Personality
b. Ability
c. Drug
d. Agility
Q:
Though handwriting analysts are consistent in their judgment about script features, they are not consistent in:
a. their analysis of what these features mean
b. their selection success rate
c. their use of handwriting analysis
d. any of these
Q:
The manager of a retail store notices that 7% of the inventory is missing. She doesn"t know if the merchandise was stolen, lost, or broken. This missing inventory is called ______ and is one of the criteria used to validate integrity tests.
a. a loss leader
b. inventory obsolescence
c. product pilferage
d. shrinkage
Q:
_______ are based on the premise that peoples' attitudes about theft as well as their previous theft behavior will accurately predict their future honesty.
a. Personality based integrity tests
b. Overt integrity tests
c. Voice stress analyzer
d. Interest inventories
Q:
____ are legal and scores on these tests are often compared to self-admissions of theft and the amount of goods lost by an organization.
a. Polygraph tests
b. Pencil-paper integrity tests
c. Voice stress analyzers
d. Electronic honesty tests
Q:
_______ are designed to tell an employer the probability that an applicant would steal money or merchandise.
a. Creativity tests
b. Social desirability tests
c. Integrity tests
d. Theft analysis inventory
Q:
Of the four choices below, which is the worst predictor of employee performance?
a. Biodata
b. Cognitive ability
c. Vocational interest
d. Assessment centers
Q:
A job applicant is given a set of questions in which she is asked to rate the extent to which she is outgoing, anxious, optimistic, careful, and loyal. She is probably taking:
a. a personality inventory
b. an interest inventory
c. a cognitive ability test
d. an assessment center
Q:
Because they are expensive, time-consuming to score and administer, and lack reliability and validity, _______ tests such as the Rorschach Ink Blot Test are seldom used by I/O psychologists.
a. objective
b. subjective
c. projective
d. multi-modal
Q:
Tests of _______ determine if individuals have serious psychological problems such as depression and bipolar disorder.
a. psychopathology
b. psychometrics
c. character
d. integrity
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the "Big 5" personality dimensions?
a. openness to experience
b. agreeableness
c. conscientiousness
d. vigor
Q:
Though there is some disagreement, psychologists today agree there are _______ main personality dimensions.
a. two
b. three
c. five
d. seven
Q:
The 16PF is a personality inventory whose 16 dimensions were determined by a factor analysis. The16PF is an example of a(n) ______ test.
a. theory-based
b. empirically-keyed based
c. parapsychology-based
d. statistically-based
Q:
Gandy and Dye (1989) believe that proper biodata items must:
a. be job related
b. deal with events under a person's control
c. have answers that are verifiable
d. all three of these are item standards
Q:
Which of the following are criticisms of biodata?
a. The validity of biodata may not be stable
b. Some biodata items may not be legal
c. Both are criticisms
d. Neither are criticisms of biodata
Q:
In constructing a biodata instrument, John asks his employees to answer a series of questions about their background. John then compares these answers to the employees' job performance. John is using which of the following methods?
a. rare response scoring
b. questionnaire approach
c. vertical percentage method
d. composite scoring
Q:
The traditionally used method to compare each piece of employee information with criterion group membership in the biodata process is the:
a. questionnaire approach
b. rare response scoring
c. vertical percentage method
d. composite scoring
Q:
The first step in the development of a biodata instrument is to:
a. obtain information about employees
b. analyze group differences
c. choose an appropriate criterion
d. split employees into two criterion groups
Q:
Which of the following assessment center techniques allows the applicant to demonstrate such attributes as creativity, decision making, and ability to work with others?
a. Business games
b. Out-basket technique
c. Simulations
d. In-basket technique
Q:
Which assessment center technique is designed to simulate the types of daily information that appear on a manager's or employee's desk?
a. simulation
b. work sample
c. leaderless group discussion
d. in-basket technique
Q:
The first step in creating an assessment center is to:
a. conduct a job analysis
b. find a location to hold the center
c. develop the necessary exercises
d. restructure the company budget
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for an assessment center?
a. Multiple assessors
b. Multiple assessment exercices
c. Use of an interview
d. At least one simulation exercise
Q:
Which of the following selection methods uses multiple techniques and multiple observersto evaluate applicants as they perform different job-related tasks?
a. Work samples
b. Assessment centers
c. Psychological testing
d. job-knowledge testing
Q:
Though work samples are excellent selection tools for several reasons, the main reason for not using them is that they can be:
a. expensive to construct
b. expensive to administer
c. neither are important reasons
d. both are important reasons