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Q:
Which of the following is NOT a limitation to employment-at-will?
a. Public policy
b. Implied contracts
c. Covenants of good faith
d. All of these are limitations
Q:
The ____ affects the quality of ratings provided by raters.
a. amount of stress in the rater's environment
b. the feelings the rater has toward the ratee
c. the race of the rater and the ratee
d. all of these are factors
Q:
Observation and cognitive processing of behavior occurs during the:
a. performance appraisal review
b. actual performance appraisal evaluation
c. selection of the performance criteria
d. instrument development stage
Q:
Bob has been a model employee all year except for the last two to three weeks; yet, Bob's ratings on his performance appraisal reflect his performance during this last two-week to three-week period. This type of rating bias is referred to as:
a. strictness error
b. contrast error
c. the recency effect
d. infrequent observation
Q:
Janet is perceived by her dining room manager, Sarah, as the best waitress who ever worked for her. Naturally, Janet's ratings on her performance appraisal are all high. Tom, on the other hand, is an average waiter; yet, after evaluating Janet, Sarah's ratings of Tom are below average. This type of rating error is referred to as:
a. contrast error
b. halo error
c. proximity error
d. preference error
Q:
If managers allow their performance ratings of one employee to affect their performance ratings of another employee, they have committed a _______ error.
a. strictness
b. contrast
c. carry over
d. proximity
Q:
An employee's ratings on the dimension of initiative are highly correlated with all of the other performance appraisal dimensions (e.g., cooperation, job accomplishment, job knowledge). Which type of rating error may be occurring?
a. Central tendency error
b. Strictness error
c. Halo error
d. Proximity error
Q:
Which type of rating error does not necessarily rate all employees similarly?
a. Strictness error
b. Leniency error
c. Central tendency error
d. Halo
Q:
A _______ error occurs when a rater allows either a single attribute or an overall impression to affect their ratings.
a. leniency
b. proximity
c. strictness
d. halo
Q:
A type of distribution error in which a rater tends to rate every employee in the middle of the scale is called _______.
a. leniency
b. central tendency
c. strictness
d. halo
Q:
A type of distribution error in which a rater tends to rate every employee at the upper end of the scale is called _______ error.
a. leniency
b. central tendency
c. strictness
d. halo
Q:
Documenting employee performance:
a. increases employee anxiety
b. decreases rating accuracy
c. reduces legal liability
d. increases recency errors
Q:
Documentation helps reduce the effects of all the following except ______.
a. first impressions
b. recent behaviors
c. leniency
d. extreme behaviors
Q:
In performance appraisal, critical incidents are an important part of the _____ process.
a. documentation
b. evaluation
c. political
d. political
Q:
Perhaps the best rater training program is ________.
a. the Cronbach method
b. frame-of-reference training
c. BARS training
d. no rater training program is effective
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true about rater training?
a. Most organizations spend considerable time training supervisors how to rate performance
b. Frame-of-reference training is an effective form of rater training
c. Training increases employee satisfaction with ratings
d. All three are true
Q:
Meta-analysis results indicate that objective and subjective measures of performance:
a. are slightly correlated (r = .39)
b. are highly correlated (r = .80)
c. are not correlated (r = .02)
d. can never be correlated
Q:
A rating scale that uses anchors such as always, often, and seldom is an example of which type of rating scale?
a. Employee comparison
b. Frequency
c. Expectations
d. Goal
Q:
A problem with _____ performance statements is that an employee can do everything asked of him by an organization and still not get the desired results due to factors outside his control.
a. results-focused
b. trait-focused
c. behavior-focused
d. emotion-focused
Q:
What type of rating scale is depicted below?
Job knowledge: Poor 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Excellent
Dependability: Poor 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Excellent
a. Behaviorally anchored rating scale
b. Behavioral observation scale
c. Graphic rating scale
d. Mixed standard scale
Q:
Which of the following rating scales have been most criticized because of their susceptibility to rating errors such as halo and leniency?
a. Behavioral anchored rating scale
b. Behavioral observation scale
c. Graphic rating scale
d. Forced choice rating scale
Q:
The most common type of rating scale is the _______scale.
a. behavioral anchored rating
b. behavioral observation
c. graphic rating
d. forced choice rating
Q:
Which of the following criteria is a subjective measure of performance for a waitress?
a. Number of positive comments received
b. Average amount of money spent on a meal
c. Number of days absent from work
d. A supervisor's rating of dependability
Q:
An employee's attendance can be separated into several different criteria. According to your text, which of the following is NOT a criteria used to measure attendance?
a. Absenteeism
b. Resignations
c. Tardiness
d. Tenure
Q:
If an employee was to produce a work product of a quality level above the organization's standards, it technically would be called _______.
a. an error
b. good worker output
c. self initiative
d. none of these
Q:
Quality of work is usually measured in terms of _______, which are defined as deviations froma standard.
a. errors
b. relevant job behaviors
c. attendance
d. all of these
Q:
Which of the following methods is an employee comparison method?
a. Rank order
b. Paired-comparison
c. Forced distribution
d. All of these methods
Q:
According to your text, the greatest problem with all of the employee comparison methods is that they do not provide information about _______.
a. the employee's motivation
b. how well an employee is actually doing
c. work related behaviors
d. there are no problems with this method
Q:
Which performance appraisal method assumes that employee performance is normally distributed?
a. Rank order
b. Paired comparison
c. Forced distribution
d. Forced choice rating
Q:
With the _______ method, a predetermined percentage of employees are placed into one of five categories.
a. paired comparison
b. forced distribution
c. rank order
d. behavioral anchored rating scale
Q:
If a supervisor had 10 employees, how many paired comparisons would she have to make for each performance dimension?
a. 10
b. 25
c. 45
d. 90
Q:
The most common method of employee comparison is the _______ method.
a. paired comparison
b. forced distribution
c. rank order
d. behavioral anchored rating scale
Q:
Which of the following performance appraisal dimensions focuses on what an employee accomplishes?
a. Traits
b. Behaviors
c. Goals
d. Cognition
Q:
According to your text, a performance appraisal instrument focuses on many areas. Which of the following is NOT one of the areas listed in your text?
a. Traits
b. Competencies
c. Tasks
d. Cognition
Q:
Though commonly used, trait-focused performance appraisal instruments are not a good idea for several reasons. Which of the following is the main reason outlined in your text?
a. They are hard to construct
b. They provide poor feedback
c. Employees hate them
d. All of these are major problems
Q:
Which of the following performance appraisal approaches focus on employees' attributes such as their dependability, assertiveness, and friendliness?
a. Competency focus
b. Goal focus
c. Task focus
d. Trait focus
Q:
Which of the following performance appraisal approaches would have dimensions such as "prevent crimes from occurring" and "minimize citizen complaints"?
a. Competency focus
b. Goal focus
c. Task focus
d. Trait focus
Q:
Agreement in performance ratings is highest between:
a. two supervisors
b. two peers
c. two subordinates
d. peers and subordinates
Q:
Self-appraisals of performance appear to be most accurate when the purpose of the self-appraisal is for:
a. salary increases
b. promotions
c. administrative purposes
d. research
Q:
To get better customer feedback on employee performance, _______ are used.
a. secret shoppers
b. consultants
c. peer ratings
d. employee comparisons
Q:
According to most research, subordinate feedback results in:
a. higher supervisor turnover
b. bad feelings among employees
c. increased supervisor performance
d. subordinates being fired
Q:
When would the use of subordinate ratings of a supervisor be least desirable?
a. There are only 1 or 2 subordinates
b. The ratings are anonymous
c. The ratings will not affect raises
d. The job is in the public sector
Q:
Which of the following performance appraisal evaluators is not common or well regarded by managers?
a. Supervisor
b. Peer
c. Subordinate
d. Customer
Q:
When peer ratings are used, research has found that high performers evaluate their peers _______ low performers.
a. the same as
b. more strictly than
c. more leniently than
d. none of these would be true
Q:
_____ ratings have been successful in predicting future success of promoted employees but/and are _____ in organizations.
a. Customer and subordinate / seldom used
b. Peer / seldom used
c. Self-appraisal / seldom used
d. self-appraisal / often used
Q:
Whereas supervisors see the _______ of an employees effort, peers often see the _______.
a. actual behavior / end result
b. end result / actual behavior
c. physical part / mental part
d. mental part / physical part
Q:
Which of the following ratings would not be used in a 360-degree feedback system?
a. Supervisor ratings
b. Peer ratings
c. Self-ratings
d. All three of these would be used
Q:
Which of the following is an area of potential use for performance appraisals?
a. Validation of employment testing
b. Training needs assessment
c. Employee training and feedback
d. All of these
Q:
Which of the following is the most important use of performance evaluation results?
a. Employee compensation
b. Employee promotion
c. Employee training and feedback
d. Personnel research
Q:
Promoting employees until they reach their highest level of incompetence is called the:
a. Anderson criteria
b. paradoxical shift
c. attribution error
d. Peter Principal
Q:
The statement "It's not fair to pay a bad employee the same amount of money as an excellent employee" exemplifies the need for accurate performance appraisals in:
a. determining salary increases
b. making promotion decisions
c. employee training and feedback
d. training needs assessment
Q:
Which of the following is true about evaluating employee performance?
a. Most performance appraisal systems are successful
b. Most organizations have specific goals for their appraisal systems
c. 360-degree feedback is best used for developmental purposes
d. All three are true
Q:
What are the three four approaches to making a hiring decision
Q:
What are the components of the Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility formula?
Q:
What are three important aspects in determining the fairness of a test?
Q:
What are the three types of criterion validity?
Q:
What components are used in the Taylor-Russell Tables?
Q:
What are the five methods for determining test validity?
Q:
What are the three main ways of determining test reliability and what type of stability does each method tap?
Q:
In constructing a band, how many standard errors are normally used?
a. Three
b. One
c. None
d. Two
Q:
To compute a band, one needs the:
a. standard error
b. validity
c. F ratio
d. mean
Q:
Which of the following hiring decision strategies takes into consideration the degree of error associated with any test score?
a. Multiple hurdle
b. Top down selection
c. Passing score
d. Banding
Q:
Which approach to employee selection would administer several tests to employees one at a time, with the least expensive tests being administered first; would score the various tests on a pass/fail basis; and would continue to test each applicant until he/she failed one of the tests?
a. Multiple-regression approach
b. Cutoff approach
c. Multiple-cutoff approach
d. Multiple-hurdle approach
Q:
With a _______ approach, the applicant is administered one test at a time.
a. multiple hurdle
b. top down selection
c. passing score
d. banding
Q:
An HR director determines that all applicants who receive at least an 81 on their test will be able to perform the functions of the job. The hiring decision strategy to be used in this situation is:
a. multiple hurdle
b. top down selection
c. passing score
d. banding
Q:
San Antonio, Texas, has a system in which the names of the top three applicants for promotion are submitted to the Chief of Police who then selects one of the three to be the new Captain. This system uses:
a. the rule of three
b. top down selection
c. a passing score
d. banding
Q:
Of the available approaches to making a hiring decision, the _______ method results in the highest levels of adverse impact.
a. multiple hurdle
b. top-down selection
c. passing score
d. banding
Q:
If an HR director believes the higher that applicants score on a test, the better they will do on the job, she could take a ________ approach to hiring decisions.
a. top-down
b. nonlinear
c. passing score
d. banding
Q:
A test predicts performance for two different groups of applicants (e.g., men and women); however, the test predicts the performance significantly better for men than it does for women. This exemplifies:
a. utility
b. single-group validity
c. differential validity
d. known-group validity
Q:
If a test is valid for two groups, but more valid for one than the other it is said to have _______.
a. known group validity
b. differential validity
c. single group validity
d. validity generalization
Q:
Single-group validity is very rare and is usually the result of _______.
a. small sample sizes
b. methodological problems
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
Q:
If a test of reading ability predicts performance of white clerks but not African American clerks, the test has _______.
a. known-group validity
b. differential validity
c. single-group validity
d. validity generalization
Q:
Single-group validity and differential validity are types of:
a. adverse impact
b. predictive bias
c. measurement bias
d. validation strategies
Q:
If the selection rate for any of the protected groups is less than 80% of the selection rate for either white applicants or males, the test is considered to have _______.
a. differential validity
b. adverse impact
c. selection bias
d. known group validity
Q:
A test is considered to have _____ if there are race differences in test scores that are unrelated to the construct being measured.
a. differential validity
b. measurement bias
c. selection bias
d. adverse impact
Q:
When the criterion validity coefficient is ____, and the selection ratio is ____, a test will have the most utility in selecting successful employees.
a. large / large
b. large / small
c. small / small
d. small / large
Q:
The ______ are (is) used to determine the amount of money that an organization would save if it used a particular test in place of the test it currently uses to select employees.
a. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula
b. Taylor-Russell Tables
c. expectancy charts
d. Lawshe tables
Q:
Even though a test is both reliable and valid, it is not necessarily useful. The _______ were/was developed to determine the amount of money that an organization would save if it used a particular test to select employees.
a. Taylor-Russell tables
b. Expectancy charts
c. Lawshe tables
d. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility formula
Q:
Even though a test is both reliable and valid, it is not necessarily useful. The _______ were created to determine the probability that a particular applicant will be successful.
a. Taylor-Russell tables
b. Expectancy charts
c. Lawshe tables
d. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility formula
Q:
Which of the following pieces of information is NOT required to use the Taylor-Russell tables?
a. Criterion validity coefficient
b. Selection ratio
c. Base rate
d. Reliability