Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following is NOT a decision making strategy associated with the Vroom-Yettonmodel? a. Autocratic I b. Consultative III c. Autocratic II d. Group I

Q: Leaders can make decisions without consulting others unless: a. their subordinates trust them b. the leader is knowledgeable c. the problem is unstructured d. the decision quality in unimportant

Q: A manager is about to make a decision regarding work schedules. He has been with the company for 20 years and has all of the information needed to make the decision. Though workschedules are a touchy issue, the manager is well thought of by his employees. How shouldhe make the decision? a. Make the decision himself b. Ask for employee input and then decide c. Have his employees make the decision d. Give the employees options and let them vote

Q: Which of the following can be used to help make decisions? a. Vroom-Yetton Model b. Two-factor Theory c. Sacred Cow Guide d. Organizational Consequence Model

Q: According to Sherriton and Stern (1997), what is the fifth and final step in assessing the new culturefollowing organizational change? a. Needs assessment b. Determining executive direction c. Training d. Evaluation of the new culture

Q: Which of the following is good advice for handling organizational change? a. Slow-down and don't make mistakes b. Take the initiative and don't be afraid c. Don't spend too much energy d. All three of these are good advice

Q: Which of the following is NOT a step in changing organizational culture? a. Socializing new employees b. Creating dissatisfaction with the old culture c. Avoiding rituals d. Hiring people compatible with the new culture

Q: After organizational change has occurred, what is the first step in assessing the new culture? a. Determining executive direction b. Training c. Evaluation d. Needs assessment

Q: An organization undergoing change should try to get the change completed no later than: a. a few weeks b. several months c. two years d. five years

Q: To create a good atmosphere for change, it is important for an organization to create: a. dissatisfaction with the current system b. a sense of the "good old days" c. a way to hide the change from doubters d. none of the three is a good idea

Q: According to Denton (1996), what is the first step in implementing change? a. Communicating details b. Creating an atmosphere for change c. Determining a time frame for change d. Assessing training needs

Q: Which of the following would most likely say If it's broke, I'll help fix it? a. Change analyst b. Change agent c. Receptive changer d. Change resister

Q: Which of the following would most likely say If it ain't broke, break it? a. Change analyst b. Change agent c. Receptive changer d. Change resister

Q: In a change made ________, employees will most likely accept the change. a. because everyone else is doing it b. by a respected leader c. without telling the reason for the change d. by a leader with a self-interest in the change

Q: When organizations undergo change, the first stage employees go through is called: a. discarding b. defense c. denial d. internalization

Q: Organizational change can be encouraged by all of the following except: a. conduct a sacred cow hunt b. play by everyone else's rules c. think like a beginner d. ask stupid questions

Q: Every memo that Cheryl receives indicates that an immediate response is required. Cheryl thinks these timelines are unnecessary are nothing more than a:a. meeting cowb. paper cowc. speed cowd. Holstein cow

Q: Bill is required to complete five forms for every request he makes. Bill is upset because he considers theses forms to be examples of a:a. meeting cowb. Holstein cowc. speed cowd. paper cow

Q: A manager who asks such questions as "Why are we doing this?" and "How and when did we start doing this?" is:a. a whinerb. ready to downsize the organizationc. about to reorganize a work unitd. conducting a sacred cow hunt

Q: Which of the following is NOT associated with social inhibition or facilitation? a. Mere presence b. Comparison c. Evaluation apprehension d. Status

Q: When two or more people perform the same task in the presence of one another, the effect on the behavior is known as: a. coaction b. audience effect c. social inhibition d. social apprehension

Q: A group of managers is watching a group of workers on an assembly line. The effect the managers will have on the performance of the workers is known as: a. coaction b. audience effects c. social inhibition d. outside pressure

Q: Social inhibition involves the ___ effects of the presence of others on individual behaviorwhereas social facilitation involves the ___ effects of the presence of others. a. negative / positive b. positive / negative c. positive / neutral d. negative / coordinating

Q: A group member consistently avoids group interaction and block's the group's activities. Hewould be considered: a. task-oriented b. structure-oriented c. individual-oriented d. maintenance-oriented

Q: A group member who coordinates the group's activities and finds new information is ____ oriented whereas one who's main role is encouraging and supporting others is ____ oriented. a. social / task b. task / social c. individual / maintenance d. individual / task

Q: Which of the following group roles encourages group cohesiveness and group participation? a. Task-oriented b. Social c. Individual d. Conjunctive

Q: Julie provides information to Temea who provides information to Juan who provides information to Julie. This is an example of which type of communication network? a. Circle b. Chain c. Centralized d. Open

Q: Increasing the perception that a group is difficult to obtain membership in helps to increase: a. group status b. group isolation c. group communication structure d. group homogeneity

Q: Social impact theory is related to: a. group size b. group status c. communication structure d. group roles

Q: A group comprised of 12 members will be _____ cohesive and have ____ morale than one comprised of five members. a. more / higher b. less / higher c. more / lower d. less / lower

Q: In Yellowstone National Park, a small group of employees runs a fast food operation which is physically removed from all of the larger lodges in town. These employees comment that they feel separated from the company's other operations; however, each summer this group tends to be a tight-knit group. This exemplifies: a. group homogeneity b. stability of group membership c. group isolation d. outside group pressure

Q: The East Barbarians softball team in the Great White North Softball League has continually improved its record over the nine years it has been in the league. Most recently, the East Barbarians, with the same team members as in the previous eight years, won the league championship for the first time. In this scenario, winning the championship probably BEST exemplifies the effects of: a. the group's homogeneity b. the stability of group membership c. group status d. group communication structure

Q: According to your text, if you are interested in improving group performance, what should the group's composition be in terms of the homogeneity of its members? a. Homogeneous b. Heterogeneous c. Slightly heterogeneous d. Homogeneity doesn't matter

Q: ______ refers to the extent to which group members are similar. a. Group cohesiveness b. Group homogeneity c. Stability of membership d. Group status

Q: ______ refers to the extent to which group members like and trust one another. a. Group cohesiveness b. Group homogeneity c. Stability of membership d. Group status

Q: People probably join a group such as a fraternity or sorority because of: a. needs for emotional support b. common interests c. common goals d. need for assistance or help

Q: POWs who were isolated from other prisoners had a lower need to live than POWs housed with older soldiers. This negative emotional reaction demonstrates the need for: a. power b. common interests c. affiliation d. control

Q: People who join a group to be with other people have ______ needs. a. identification b. support c. affiliation d. physical proximity

Q: Employees on the 7th floor go to lunch together and employees on the 2nd floor play together in a city basketball league. These examples demonstrate the importance of ____ in forming groups. a. emotional support b. physical proximity c. common interests d. assignment

Q: A hotel room attendant does not show up to clean his rooms on a given day. Due to his absence, the other room attendants are assigned additional rooms to clean. This scenario BEST exemplifies which criteria of group membership? a. Multiple members b. Group membership is rewarding c. Corresponding effects d. Common goals

Q: When something affects one member of the group, it affects all members. This is known as ______ and is a criterion for being considered a group. a. affiliation b. corresponding effects c. identification d. group status

Q: Which of the following is NOT a criteria for being a group? a. Multiple members b. Common goals c. Group rewards d. Identification

Q: What are the common reactions to conflict?

Q: What are the major reasons for conflict?

Q: What are the four stages in team development?

Q: What factors affect group cohesiveness?

Q: What factors affect group performance?

Q: What are the four factors that define a group?

Q: A conflict resolution strategy in which a neutral third party listens to all parties involved in a conflictand then makes a decision is called: a. mediation b. cooperative problem solving c. arbitration d. compromising

Q: A conflict resolution strategy that involves a neutral third party who helps both sides reach a mutually agreeable solution is known as: a. arbitration b. mediation c. compromising d. cooperative problem solving

Q: In negotiation, a BATNA will affect a person's: a. least acceptable result b. maximum supportable position c. negotiation style d. attempts at individual dominance

Q: Although it can take a lot of time and effort, the best style for handling conflict is: a. collaborative b. compromising c. forcing d. interpersonal

Q: A _____ conflict style handles conflict in a win-lose fashion whereas a _____ style adopts give and take tactics. a. collaborative / forcing b. forcing / collaborative c. collaborative / compromising d. forcing / compromising

Q: People who use a(n) _______ conflict managing style, handle conflict in a win-lose manner and do what it takes to win with no regard for other people. a. forcing b. accommodating c. avoiding d. collaborative

Q: A person who manages conflict by ignoring it is using a(n) _____ style whereas someone who always gives in to others and risks hurting himself uses a(n) ____ style for handling conflict. a. accommodating / avoiding b. avoiding / collaborative c. avoiding / accommodating d. avoiding / compromising

Q: A person who ignores conflict and hopes it will go away is using a(n) _______ style. a. forcing b. accommodating c. avoiding d. collaborative

Q: Some people have a high need for attention. The _____ yells a lot for attention and the _____ gets attention by poking fun at others. a. tank / sniper b. grenade / friendly sniper c. grenade / think-they-know-it-all d. tank / think-they-know-it-all

Q: A difficult worker obsessed with completing a task quickly is classified as a _____, whereas one who dominates conversations and does not listen to other's ideas is a _____. a. tank / know-it-all b. know-it-all / tank c. tank / sniper d. sniper / know it all

Q: Your text lists several sources of conflict. Which one is NOT listed as a source of conflict? a. Competition for resources b. Power c. Jurisdictional ambiguity d. Personality

Q: The barriers to interpersonal communication that can cause conflict are: a. physical/cultural/psychological b. status/psychological/cultural c. gender/status/cultural d. jurisdictional/resource/physical

Q: Which source of conflict results when geographical boundaries or lines of authority are unclear? a. Competition of resources b. Task interdependence c. Jurisdictional ambiguity d. Communication barriers

Q: Individuals from one part of the organization often rely on individuals from other departments in the company in order to meet common goals. Conflicts which arise between various groups is probably caused by: a. competition for resources b. task interdependence c. jurisdictional ambiguity d. communication barriers

Q: Many teams are formed to solve problems but are not given sufficient authority to conduct theirbusiness. This is a problem involving: a. the norming stage b. lack of empowerment c. the definition of a team d. lack of skill

Q: During the _____ stage of team development, team members often become frustrated with their roles. a. storming b. norming c. forming d. performing

Q: ______ teams consist of representatives from various departments within an organization. a. Self-directed work b. Customer-service c. Parallel d. Homogeneous

Q: Which of the following characteristics suggests that a collection of five employees is a teamrather than a "group" or a "committee?" a. Independence b. 2 of the 5 members have 80% of the power c. The members use casual language d. Use of forcing to manage conflict

Q: Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines whether a collection of employees is a team rather than a "group" or a "committee?" a. Interdependence b. Equal power among members c. Increased social distance d. Use of collaboration to manage conflict

Q: Which of the following is true about brainstorming? a. Interacting groups are best at creating ideas b. Nominal groups are best at creating idea c. Interacting and nominal groups are equally creative d. Groups will be less creative than a single individual due to social loafing

Q: A manager wants to increase the quality of his employee's decisions. He should have: a. some of them work in groups b. them work individually c. them work in groups d. none of these three answers will matter

Q: Assigning a task to a group instead of an individual is best under what circumstances? a. When the task involves taking chances b. When the task quality is most important c. Under neither circumstance d. Under both circumstances

Q: Which of the following should a leader NOT do to reduce groupthink? a. Promote open discussion b. Elicit outside information c. Appoint someone as a devil's advocate d. Apply pressure on members to conform

Q: When a group becomes too cohesive and insulated from outside help, _____ is likely to occur: a. social loafing b. social facilitation c. groupthink d. group conflict

Q: Not having the group leader state his/her own position in the decision making process, and having the group leader promote open discussion and encourage group members to speak are ways to reduce the effects of: a. social loafing b. social inhibition c. evaluation apprehension d. groupthink

Q: A situation in which a group becomes so cohesive and like-minded that it makes poor decisions by ignoring information relevant to the decision-making process is: a. individual dominance b. social loafing c. groupthink d. the devil's advocate approach

Q: Which of the following is true about the effect of individual dominance in a group. a. Group performance will almost always decrease due to individual dominance b. Group performance will increase if the dominating person is competent c. A dominating person really has relatively little effect on the group's performance d. Group performance will increase only if the leader is high in compassion

Q: Lilly is working on a group project with three other students. The project is going great so Lilly decides to reduce her effort. The theory that best explains her social loafing is: a. free-rider b. individual dominance c. distraction d. sucker-effect

Q: Mary notices that none of the other members of her group are working hard so she decides to lower her effort. Her behavior support the _____ theory of social loafing. a. free-rider b. individual dominance c. distraction d. sucker-effect

Q: A member of a small task force has decreased the amount of his individual effort on the group's task. He is exhibiting: a. social apprehension b. social facilitation c. social loafing d. individual dominance

Q: Bill is an excellent typist, Fred is average, and John is just learning to type. If an audience started to watch them type, we would expect ____ to do better and ____ to do worse. a. Bill / John b. John / Fred c. Fred / Bill d. Fred / John

Q: Anita is typing and starts to make mistakes when she notices that the person sitting next to her is typing much faster and making fewer mistakes. Anita's increase in mistakes is probably due to: a. comparison b. evaluation apprehension c. mere presence d. none of the three are viable explanations