Q&A Hero

Q: The delayed phase preference suggests that: A. adolescents should not be taught sex education until high school. B. school should be held year-round. C. school should begin later in the morning. D. school should begin earlier in the morning.

Q: Researchers have found that, with regard to adolescent sleep patterns: A. adolescents today are getting more sleep than adolescents 30 years ago. B. the reason that high schools begin classes earlier than middle schools or junior high schools is that adolescents are more alert during the morning hours than later in the day. C. getting inadequate sleep is associated with poorer mental health and lower grades for adolescents. D. although most adolescents do not get sufficient sleep during the week, they are able to make up for the deficit by sleeping later on weekends.

Q: According to the textbook, Julie, a seventeen-year-old living in a college dormitory, has noticed that her menstrual periods have begun to synchronize with _____, which is compelling evidence that social relationships can affect biological functioning. A. the time her female roommate menstruates B. her most stressful days of the month C. days she feels most sexually aroused D. her biological sister living in a different city

Q: Over the past century, the onset of puberty has been coming at an earlier age. This has been referred to as the: A. cross-sectional trend. B. endocrine trend. C. menarche trend. D. secular trend.

Q: Puberty began for Nancy when she was 9 years old. Her mother began puberty at 11 years. For her grandmother, the onset was at 13 years of age. These changes in the age of onset of puberty over time are referred to as: A. cross-sectional trend. B. secular trend. C. longitudinal trend. D. physiologic trend.

Q: Professor Kendall has been researching adolescent maturation around the world. Which of the following is she likely to determine has the smallest role in determining group differences in pubertal maturation? A. nutrition. B. sanitation. C. infectious diseases. D. genetics.

Q: Which of the following female sex characteristics is usually the last to develop? A. menarche B. regular ovulation C. development of the nipples of the breasts D. growth of pubic hair

Q: Which of the following statements about puberty in girls is false? A. Regular ovulation and the ability to carry a baby to term usually follow menarche by several years. B. The development of the areola and nipple are far better indicators of sexual maturation than is breast size. C. Menarche occurs very early in the process of sexual development. D. The changes in the nipple and areola occur regardless of the size to which the breast finally develops.

Q: Which of the following statements about the timing and tempo of sexual maturation is true? A. In the United States, and in all other countries, menarche typically occurs around age 12. B. The duration of puberty varies widely, from 1.5 to 6 years in girls and 2 to 5 years in boys. C. Adolescents who begin puberty early are also those who complete it early. D. Adolescents who begin puberty earlier usually grow to be taller adults.

Q: Sarah is a junior high student anticipating and preparing for puberty. She wants to know when puberty will start and how long it will take until she looks and is considered an adult. What would you tell her? A. The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly variable and is influenced by both genetic and environmental factors. B. The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly predictive. She will begin the puberty process around 12.5 years of age and it will take four years until it is completed. C. The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly controllable. D. The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is predetermined by your DNA.

Q: Based on research addressing ethnic differences in the timing and rate of pubertal maturation, which American girl would be expected to be the earliest to mature? A. Brandy, a middle-income Black adolescent B. Miranda, a middle-income Mexican adolescent C. Emily, a middle-income White adolescent D. Kimberly, a middle-income Asian adolescent

Q: Which of the following can delay the onset of puberty? A. stress B. nutritional deficiencies C. excessive exercise D. All of the above

Q: Differences in the timing and rate of puberty among individuals growing up in the same general environment are largely caused by: A. hormonal factors. B. genetic factors. C. environmental factors. D. None of the above

Q: Which of the following factors have not been found to influence the onset of maturation? A. father absence B. good nutrition C. family conflict D. peer pressure

Q: The rapid increase in body fat that adolescent girls experience: A. leads to a majority of adolescent girls dieting unnecessarily. B. leads to an increase in healthy eating patterns among adolescent girls. C. increases vulnerability to feelings of body dissatisfaction for Black adolescent girls. D. is seen by the Centers for Disease Control as a major risk factor for obesity among adolescent girls.

Q: According to the textbook, the sex difference in athletic performance during early adolescence results from all of the following except: A. self-confidence. B. body fat. C. hormones. D. diet and exercise.

Q: All of the following are reasons that males have greater gains in strength than females during early adolescence, except: A. increased production of androgens among females. B. strong societal pressures on girls to decrease their physical activity in adolescence. C. inadequate nutrition among adolescent girls. D. sex differences in body fat.

Q: Which of the following sex characteristics is the first to develop in boys? A. production of sperm B. appearance of facial hair C. growth of testes and scrotum D. growth of penis

Q: Which of the following is probably true for Ashley, an early-maturing girl who was short and stocky as a child? A. After puberty, she will be shorter and heavier than her late-maturing peers. B. After puberty, she will be shorter and thinner than her late-maturing peers. C. After puberty, she will be taller and heavier than her late-maturing peers. D. After puberty, she will be taller and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

Q: The first ejaculation of seminal fluid that occurs is: A. biologically predetermined. B. genetically inherited. C. often determined culturally. D. a major embarrassment for most boys.

Q: The first sign of puberty in girls is generally: A. growth of breasts. B. underarm hair. C. menarche. D. acne.

Q: Molly's breasts are beginning to develop, she is beginning to grow pubic hair, her skin is becoming more oily, and her body is growing rapidly. These changes are brought about by the secretion of _____ by the _____. A. estrogen only; testes B. androgens only; ovaries C. estrogen and androgens; ovaries D. estrogen and androgens; testes

Q: One reason for the difference in the body shapes of the sexes is: A. the timing of the growth spurt. B. that females tend to be more "left-brained" and males more "right-brained." C. differences in the size of the hypothalamus. D. the difference in the amount and distribution of body fat.

Q: Although both sexes experience changes in muscle tissue and body fat, the ratio of muscle to body fat is: A. greater in boys than girls. B. greater in girls than boys. C. about the same in both genders. D. greater in early-maturing girls than in late-maturing boys.

Q: Which of the following girls would probably be least susceptible to feelings of body dissatisfaction due to the rapid increase in body fat in early adolescence? A. Suzy, an early maturer B. Lilly, someone who began dating early C. Diane, someone from a relatively affluent family D. Beth, a Black adolescent girl

Q: Which of the following is not thought to contribute to the onset of puberty? A. the presence of sexually mature partners in the environment B. whether the individual is healthy enough to begin reproduction C. the development of primary sex characteristics D. whether there are nutritional resources available to support a pregnancy

Q: Which of the following statements suggests that rising levels of the protein leptin is an important signal that tells the body it is ready for puberty? A. Production of pubic hair relates to increased sex drive. B. Excessive thinness can delay onset of puberty. C. Poorer adolescents tend to go through puberty earlier than non-poor adolescents. D. Excessive exercise promotes early physical development.

Q: Which of the following is not part of the feedback loop in the endocrine system? A. gonads B. hypothalamus C. pituitary gland D. thyroid hormones

Q: Ten-year-old Luna's budding feelings of sexual attraction are most likely explained: A. by maturation of the adrenal glands through the process called adrenarche. B. by maturation of the gonads through a process called menarche. C. as rising levels of leptin instruct her hypothalamus to set the hormonal changes of puberty in motion. D. as increases in sex hormones activate her HPG axis.

Q: The hormonally induced increase in the rate of growth in height and weight is referred to as: A. the adolescent growth spurt. B. epiphyses. C. secular trend. D. delayed phase preference.

Q: The simultaneous release of growth hormones, thyroid hormones, and _________ stimulates rapid acceleration in height and weight during puberty. A. pituitary glands B. estrogens C. androgens D. thyroid glands

Q: At the time of peak height velocity, adolescents grow at about the same rate as: A. newborns. B. infants. C. toddlers. D. elementary schoolchildren.

Q: The adolescent growth spurt: A. generally begins two years earlier for girls than for boys. B. generally begins two years earlier for boys than for girls. C. is slower in the early adolescent years, then speeds up around age 15 for boys and girls. D. proceeds along a smooth and rapid course over the teen years.

Q: Which of the following is not characteristic of changes in skeletal structure during puberty? A. One marker that indicates the termination in growth in height is epiphysis. B. Bones become more porous and more likely to break. C. Height gains are attributable more to increases in torso length than leg length. D. The growth sequence generally begins with the extremities, and then proceeds to the arms and legs, then to the torso and shoulders.

Q: Who is at the greatest risk of developing body dissatisfaction? A. Callie, an early-maturing, affluent White girl who compares herself to her friends B. Miranda, a late-maturing Black girl C. John, an early-maturing Black male who compares himself to his friends D. Mike, a late-maturing White male who feels he is not muscular enough

Q: The presence or absence of certain hormones early in life may "program" the brain and the nervous system to develop in certain ways later on. These hormones are considered: A. androgens. B. estrogens. C. organizational. D. activational.

Q: Hormones play two very different roles in adolescence. _______ hormones program the brain to behave in certain ways, whereas _______ hormones are thought to stimulate development of the secondary sex characteristics. A. Activational; organizational B. Organizational; activational C. Testosterone; endocrine D. Endocrine; testosterone

Q: Which of the following statements about prenatal development is not true? A. Up until about eight weeks after conception, all human brains are feminine. B. Puberty is part of a gradual process that begins at conception. C. All hormones necessary for puberty are present before birth. D. The amount of cortisol exposed to the fetus is directly linked to the timing and tempo of puberty.

Q: Of all the developments that take place during the second decade of life, the only one that is truly inevitable is: A. physical maturation. B. an identity crisis. C. rebellion against one's parents. D. the first experience of romantic love.

Q: The average girl in the United States reaches _________, the time of her first menstrual period, sometime between the ages of 12 and 13. A. spermarche B. menarche C. puberty D. adrenarche

Q: The physical transformation from child to adult is called: A. puberty. B. early adolescence. C. middle adolescence. D. late adolescence.

Q: The term puberty refers to the period during which: A. an individual is between the ages of 12 and 15. B. an individual's endocrine system creates new hormones. C. an individual becomes capable of sexual reproduction. D. an individual stops growing.

Q: According to the textbook, puberty involves all of the following except A. development of the primary sex characteristics. B. changes in distribution of fat and muscle in the body. C. development of secondary sex characteristics. D. increases in intellectual functioning

Q: Professor Radon is studying the _________ system, which produces, circulates, and regulates levels of hormones in the body. A. adrenal B. circulatory C. respiratory D. endocrine

Q: Which of the following statements about the production of hormones at puberty is false? A. The body begins to produce several hormones that have not been present in the body up until this time. B. There is an increase in the production of certain hormones. C. Boys' bodies produce more androgens and girls' bodies produce more estrogens. D. The feedback loop regulating the endocrine system's set point for each hormone becomes increasingly important.

Q: When levels of _____ and _____ fall below the set points, the _____ stops inhibiting the pituitary gland, thus permitting it to stimulate the release of sex hormones by the gonads. A. leptin; thyroid hormones; hypothalamus B. androgens; estrogen; adrenal gland C. androgens; estrogens; hypothalamus D. leptin; thyroid hormones; adrenal gland

Q: Perhaps the most common type of graph in psychology journals is the A. line graph. B. frequency polygon. C. frequency distribution. D. pie chart.

Q: A good Discussion section of a research report begins with A. repeating the most significant statistical results, including the exact probability values. B. a succinct statement of the study's findings. C. a description of the study's limitations. D. a discussion of related research findings.

Q: For a research article found online, it is recommended that you should include in the References section the A. date in which it was retrieved. B. digital object identifier (DOI). C. uniform resource locator (URL). D. all of these.

Q: The correct order for listing work cited in the References section of an APA-format manuscript is A. according to the order in which the works were cited in the manuscript. B. based on the relevance of the work to the manuscript (i.e., most relevant first, and so on). C. alphabetically according to the last name of the first author. D. according to the year the work was published, with the most recent works listed first.

Q: When footnotes are used in a research manuscript, they are A. lettered A, B, C, and so on. B. listed on a separate page after the References section. C. typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is mentioned. D. both (B) and (C)

Q: Oral presentations differ from written presentations of scientific studies mainly in terms of A. whether conclusions from statistical analyses are mentioned. B. whether they are interesting. C. the amount of details provided. D. the use of figures or graphs.

Q: A written research proposal, unlike the report of a completed research study, generally will not include A. a Method section. B. an Appendix. C. an Abstract. D. any reference to statistics.

Q: When graphing the results of an experiment with an independent variable and a dependent variable, the values for the dependent variable are plotted A. on the horizontal or x-axis. B. on the vertical or y-axis. C. in a scatterplot. D. in separate panels.

Q: The main purpose of the Abstract in a research report is to A. identify the authors of the research and their affiliations. B. summarize the purpose of the study and the content of the research report. C. provide a logical development of the study's hypotheses. D. provide a concise description of the study's procedures so the study can be replicated.

Q: The abstract of your research article is best written A. before you do the research. B. before you write the body of the report. C. after writing the introduction. D. after you have written the rest of your report.

Q: The literature review in the introduction section of a research report should include A. the studies that are most directly related to the research topic. B. all of the previous research that is relevant to the topic. C. complete descriptions of the hypotheses, methodology, and findings of previous research related to the research topic. D. only previous studies that describe theories related to the research topic.

Q: Identify the APA-format error in the following sentence: Nature and nurture interact to produce gender differences (Alice Eagly & Wendy Wood, 2013). A. The reference to the authors should appear at the beginning of the sentence. B. Parentheses should not be used in the sentence. C. The authors' first names should not appear in the citation. D. The year should come before the authors' names.

Q: One way that psychologists search the recent psychology research literature is by A. reviewing textbooks. B. searching the PsycInfo database. C. browsing the self-help section of their local bookstore. D. searching for reports that reach the media.

Q: The best way to write a Method section of a research report is to include information that A. is mainly general in nature. B. identifies every detail of the study. C. demonstrates how the study is similar to previous research. D. is essential to comprehend and replicate the study.

Q: A typical paragraph in a Results section begins by A. summarizing what was found in the analysis. B. reviewing the statistical tests used. C. stating the purpose of the analysis. D. presenting descriptive statistics.

Q: The last step in writing a paragraph in a Results section is to A. explain why the statistical tests were used. B. state a brief conclusion regarding the statistical finding. C. present the descriptive statistics in a verbal statement, table, or figure. D. present the confidence interval in APA-format.

Q: Which of the following is the correct report of a t-statistic when using APA format? A. t(36) = 4.10, p = .025, d = 1.20 B. t = 4.10, df = 36, p < .05, d = 1.20 C. t(36) = 4.10, p < .05, d = 1.20 D. t = 4.10, p = .025

Q: When an researcher submits a manuscript for publication, a number of experts in the field of the research evaluate the manuscript. This process is known as A. peer review. B. editorial evaluation. C. APA format. D. discussion group.

Q: When making decisions about whether to accept a research manuscript for publication, the primary emphasis of journal editors when they evaluate the manuscript is A. whether the research will help to sell journal issues and bring psychology into the news. B. the quality of the research and the effectiveness of the presentation in the manuscript. C. who conducted the research and where it was conducted. D. all of these

Q: About ______ percent of the manuscripts submitted for publication in American Psychological Association journals are accepted for publication. A. 25 B. 33 C. 50 D. 75

Q: To avoid unbiased communication when referring to human participants in your study, you should describe them A. in the most general terms. B. using the word "subjects." C. using specific descriptions. D. using ethnic labels that make you comfortable.

Q: Which is not one of the four major sections that make up the body of a research report? A. Introduction B. Results C. Appendices D. Discussion

Q: The title of a research manuscript should A. be "flashy" to attract potential readers to the research. B. include the goals and the primary methodological design of the research. C. include the author's name, such as "John Doe's Study of Personality and Behavior". D. inform readers of important variables or theoretical issues in the research.

Q: The second page of a formal, written research manuscript prepared according to APA format is the A. Introduction. B. Title page. C. Author Notes. D. Abstract.

Q: The initial overall analysis of an experiment based on the analysis of variance is called A. an omnibus F-test. B. the between-within test. C. the interaction F-test. D. a multiple-group analysis.

Q: The t-test for independent groups is the appropriate inferential test when A. a margin of error is needed for single random sample from a population. B. comparing two means. C. comparing more than two means. D. calculating a correlation between groups.

Q: The degrees of freedom for a t-test for independent groups are A. N - 1. B. (n1 + n2) - 1. C. (n1 + n2) - 2. D. 2(N) - 1.

Q: The appropriate inferential test when each subject participates in both conditions of an experiment is A. a between-subjects t-test. B. a margin of error. C. a t-test for independent groups. D. a repeated measures t-test.

Q: Results that are "statistically significant" may not be of interest to the scientific community because A. the study's methodology was poor. B. the results have little external validity. C. the treatment effect is too small to be of practical value. D. any of these reasons

Q: When a finding in an experiment is statistically significant, the scientific community can be confident that A. the experiment is free of confoundings. B. the finding will generalize to settings beyond those studied in the experiment. C. the finding has a low probability of occurring if the null hypothesis were true. D. all of these

Q: A psychologist conducts a study to test a new treatment. The effect of treatment is statistically significant; the effect size is small according to accepted criteria. When considering the practical or clinical significance of the finding, the psychologist is likely to be concerned about A. the financial cost of implementing the treatment. B. the external validity of the finding. C. whether the study is free of confoundings. D. all of these

Q: When deciding how to make a claim about the effect of a variable, researchers should A. report the results of significance testing instead of measures of effect size. B. be aware of limitations association with null hypotheses significance testing. C. use the most complicated analysis to tease out the fullest effects. D. not use confidence intervals.

Q: A researcher plans to conduct a study to compare two groups. Based on previous research, she anticipates a medium effect size. She does a power analysis with alpha level of .05. This power analysis tells her A. the t-test outcome and degrees of freedom she should expect. B. Cohen's d for her study. C. the sample size she will need to observe a statistically significant finding. D. the practical significance of her research.

Q: A researcher tested a treatment and a control group in an experiment with 15 subjects in each group. Although a t-test indicated the means for the dependent variable were not statistically different, the effect size for the independent variable was .50. A power analysis revealed that the power of the study was .26. This means that A. the difference between means in the experiment was .26. B. the value of the t-statistic is 0.13 (.50 .26). C. a statistically significant outcome would be obtained in approximately 1 in 4 attempts with this sample size and effect size. D. the probability of obtaining a statistically significant difference for this experiment is .74 (1 - .26).