Q&A Hero

Q: The ventricles completely empty when they contract in systole.

Q: Closure of the atrioventricular valves occurs at the end of diastole/beginning of systole.

Q: During isovolumetric ventricular contraction ventricular pressure is A. increasing. B. decreasing. C. unchanged.

Q: During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation A. left ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure. B. atrial pressure is less than ventricular pressure. C. ventricular pressure is increasing. D. the atrioventricular valves are open.

Q: The first heart sound is produced when the semilunar valves close.

Q: Heart murmurs may be caused by _______, a condition in which valves are thickened and calcified. A. stenosis B. fibrillation C. regurgitation D. septal defect

Q: Damage to heart valves by antibodies in response to streptococcus bacteria is called A. rheumatic endocarditis. B. mitral stenosis. C. erythroblastosis fetalis. D. patent ductus arteriosus.

Q: In the fetus, blood can flow from the right atrium to the left atrium through the A. tricuspid valve. B. ductus arteriosus. C. foramen ovale. D. ductus venosus.

Q: Valves are said to be _______ when they do not close properly and blood leaks through them. A. stenotic B. weak C. incompetent D. flappy

Q: The pathway of blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is the A. cardiac circulation. B. systemic circulation. C. pulmonary circulation. D. pleural circulation.

Q: The ventricles are the pumps of the heart.

Q: The oxygen content of arteries in the pulmonary circulation is high.

Q: A greater pressure in the right ventricle than the aorta causes the aortic semilunar valve to open.

Q: The mitral valve is one of the two semilunar valves.

Q: What valve keeps blood from flowing back into the right atrium from the right ventricle? A. tricuspid valve B. bicuspid valve C. mitral valve D. pulmonary semilunar valve

Q: What structures keep the AV valves from everting under high ventricular pressure? A. annuli fibrosis B. interventricular and interatrial septa C. papillary muscles and chordae tendineae D. semilunar valves

Q: The amount of blood ejected by the ventricles per beat is termed the A. cardiac output. B. end diastolic volume. C. blood pressure. D. stroke volume.

Q: What is the enzyme that converts soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin? A. prothrombin B. thrombin C. thromboplastin D. plasmin

Q: Kallikrein is the active form of plasminogen.

Q: Kallikrein is responsible for A. clot dissolution. B. serum production. C. platelet plug formation. D. fibrin formation.

Q: Endogenously applied ______________ or tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) can induce blood clot dissolution. A. albumin B. streptokinase C. thromboxane A2 D. penicillin

Q: Vitamin K is needed for A. proper clotting factor function. B. directly activating fibrinogen. C. directly stabilizing the fibrin polymer. D. activating antithrombin III.

Q: Which anticoagulant and its action is NOT correctly matched? A. aspirin - inhibits prostaglandin production and platelet aggregation B. heparin - inhibits action of thrombin C. coumadin - inhibits tissue thromboplastin D. citrate - combines with calcium to prevent its function with clotting factors

Q: The annuli fibrosi are rings of epithelial tissue that support the heart valves.

Q: The pulmonary veins return oxygen depleted blood to the right atrium.

Q: Aspirin inhibits blood clotting by directly preventing A. thrombin formation. B. platelet plug formation. C. fibrin formation. D. clot retraction.

Q: The final protein that forms a blood clot is A. fibrin. B. thrombin. C. thromboplastin. D. plasmin.

Q: Both the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways activate factors that A. convert prothrombin to thrombin. B. convert fibrinogen to fibrin. C. convert plasminogen to plasmin. D. None apply

Q: The prostaglandin, thromboxane A2, stimulates A. vasodilation. B. platelet aggregation. C. platelet repelling. D. vasoconstriction.

Q: Prostacyclin, PGI2, prevents A. vasodilation. B. platelet aggregation. C. vasoconstriction. D. clot retraction.

Q: CD39 enzyme A. breaks down fibrin. B. inhibits COX-1. C. binds to damaged collagen. D. breaks down ADP to AMP and Pi.

Q: Which of the following does NOT inhibit platelet aggregation? A. nitric oxide B. prostacyclin C. von Willebrand's factor D. CD39

Q: Which of the following stimulates the formation of the platelet plug? A. von Willebrand's factor B. ADP C. thromboxane A2 D. All apply

Q: The platelet release reaction is initiated by platelets binding to exposed collagen in a broken membrane.

Q: Damage to tissues stimulates the activation of the ______________ blood clotting pathway. A. complement B. hemophilic C. intrinsic D. extrinsic

Q: What ion is necessary for the clotting process? A. Na+ B. K+ C. Ca2+ D. Mg2+

Q: What is the role of serotonin in blood clotting? A. causes platelets to become sticky B. enhances the platelet release reaction C. causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels to slow loss of blood D. converts fibrinogen to fibrin

Q: Hemophilia is A. an X-linked trait. B. more prevalent in women. C. results in excessive blood clots. D. All apply

Q: A person with Rh- blood will normally have antibodies against Rh present in their blood.

Q: Mary has type AB blood. Which type of antibodies are present in her plasma? A. anti-A B. anti-B C. anti-A and anti-B D. Neither anti-A nor anti-B

Q: Blood clot dissolution is stimulated by tissue thromboplastin.

Q: What protein regulates iron homeostasis? A. hepcidin B. ferritin C. cytokine D. multipotent growth factor-1

Q: How does hepcidin function in iron homeostasis? A. increases production of transferrin B. promotes cellular storage of iron by removing ferroportin channels in enterocytes C. promotes production and insertion of ferroportin channels in enterocytes D. increases macrophage destruction of old red blood cells to release iron

Q: When the wrong blood type is given to a patient, the antibodies in the patient's blood react with the antigens on the surface of the transfused blood causing a reaction called A. neutralization. B. precipitation. C. agglutination. D. coagulation.

Q: John has blood type B. In an emergency, John could receive which of the following blood types? A. B only B. AB only C. O only D. B or O

Q: What type of antigens are present in Type O blood? A. A only B. B only C. both A and B D. neither A nor B

Q: Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when A. the mother has blood type A and the fetus has blood type O. B. the mother has Rh+ blood and the fetus has Rh- blood. C. the mother has Rh- blood and the fetus has Rh+ blood. D. the mother has type AB blood and the fetus has type O blood.

Q: Blood would clot more slowly in an individual with 100,000 platelets/mm3.

Q: Leukocytes secrete serotonin which will cause constriction of blood vessels, thus reducing the loss of blood.

Q: ________ development would be inhibited if the actions of granulocyte colony stimulating factor were blocked. A. Thrombocytes B. Neutrophils C. Erythrocytes D. Lymphocytes

Q: Granular leukocytes are derived from A. erythroblasts. B. lymphoblasts. C. monoblasts. D. myeloblasts.

Q: The process of blood cell formation is A. leukocytosis. B. polycythemia. C. hematopoiesis. D. hemogenesis.

Q: What is the major hemotopoietic organ in the fetus? A. liver B. spleen C. red bone marrow D. kidneys

Q: What hormone stimulates the process of erythropoiesis? A. multipotent growth factor-1 B. interleukin-1 C. erythropoietin D. GM-CSF

Q: What organ secretes erythropoietin? A. kidneys B. liver C. bone marrow D. lungs

Q: What is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin? A. low RBC count B. decreased blood oxygen levels C. low amount of hemoglobin D. All apply

Q: What substances are needed to produce red blood cells? A. vitamin B12 B. folic acid C. iron D. All apply

Q: Iron is transported in the blood by the protein A. globin. B. fibrinogen. C. transferrin. D. albumin.

Q: Inhibiting gastric function would stimulate A. iron-deficiency anemia. B. pernicious anemia. C. aplastic anemia. D. leukemia.

Q: What is the main component of an erythrocyte? A. transferring B. albumin C. globulin D. hemoglobin

Q: Polycythemia would be induced by A. decreased oxygen in the blood. B. increased oxygen in the blood. C. decreased carbon dioxide in the blood. D. increased infection in the blood.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of white blood cells? A. have nuclei and mitochondria B. have amoeboid movement C. can leave blood vessels D. makes up the major formed element

Q: The most common type of anemia is A. polycythemia. B. pernicious anemia. C. iron-deficiency anemia. D. aplastic anemia.

Q: The most abundant leukocytes in the blood are the A. eosinophils. B. basophils. C. neutrophils. D. monocytes.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a granular leukocyte? A. neutrophil B. eosinophil C. monocyte D. basophil

Q: Polymorphonuclear leukocytes are also known as A. basophils. B. neutrophils. C. eosinophils. D. monocytes.

Q: What type of cell found in the blood produces antibodies? A. monocyte B. plasma cell C. basophil D. neutrophil

Q: Blood globulins include which of the following types? A. alpha globulins B. beta globulins C. gamma globulins D. All apply.

Q: Which blood globulin is an antibody that helps fight infection? A. alpha globulin B. beta globulin C. gamma globulin D. None apply

Q: Individuals with an increased hematocrit would probably be anemic.

Q: A normal red blood cell count is in the range of __________ /mm3. A. 4.23-5.98 million B. 4,300-10,800 C. 120-220 D. 130-400 thousand

Q: Having no nucleus, a biconcave shape, and the function of gas transport would describe a A. red blood cell. B. platelet. C. white blood cell. D. albumin.

Q: Which part of the red blood cell can bind to oxygen? A. globin part of hemoglobin B. cell cytoplasm C. heme part of hemoglobin D. plasma membrane

Q: Serum is blood plasma without fibrinogen.

Q: The major plasma protein is A. alpha globulin. B. beta globulin. C. fibrinogen. D. albumin.

Q: Blood pH should be between 7.55 - 7.65.

Q: Decreased liver protein synthesis would cause the amount of ______________ and ______________ in the blood to be decreased. A. thromboplastin, RBCs B. RBCs, WBCs C. albumin, fibrinogen D. platelets, albumin

Q: Arteries usually carry blood high in oxygen towards the heart.

Q: Blood is composed of formed elements and plasma.

Q: The lymphatic system is part of the circulatory system.