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Psychology

Q: Matching Questions Abnormal T cell response results in delayed hypersensitivity with the secretion of A. histamine. B. lymphokines. C. interleukin. D. antibodies.
Q: Matching Questions Which is true of immediate hypersensitivity reactions? A. B cells are involved. B. IgE antibodies are the immune effectors. C. Antihistamines can be used to treat them. D. All of the choices are correct.
Q: Autoimmune diseases include Grave's disease, myasthenia gravis, and rheumatic fever.
Q: Matching Questions Colostrum provides infants with _____________ immunity. A. active B. innate C. passive D. direct
Q: Matching Questions What is the ability to mount a specific immune response called? A. self-tolerance B. complement activation C. immunological competence D. clonal-selection
Q: Matching Questions Immunological competence develops A. during gestation. B. at the onset of puberty. C. at birth. D. shortly after birth.
Q: Matching Questions What type of cell can destroy cancer cells without prior stimulation by tumor antigens? A. cytotoxic T lymphocytes B. natural killer cells C. B lymphocytes D. regulatory T lymphocytes
Q: Benign tumors grow rapidly and can be dispersed throughout the body.
Q: Matching Questions What substance released by NK cells and cytotoxic T cells destroys the DNA of an infected cell? A. perforin B. interleukin-1 C. interferon D. granzyme
Q: Stress and aging may cause increased incidences of cancer.
Q: Since cancer cells dedifferentiate, embryonic or fetal proteins can be used for diagnosis.
Q: Monoclonal antibodies have shown limited success in cancer treatment.
Q: Matching Questions Which of the following is NOT a procedure for producing vaccines? A. use live, attenuated viruses B. use killed, virulent viruses C. use cloned antibodies D. use recombinant viral proteins
Q: Matching Questions Molecules included with immunizations that boost immune response by increasing antigen-presenting ability are called A. clones. B. FAS ligands. C. interleukin-1. D. adjuvants.
Q: Matching Questions What theory states that tolerance to self-antigens is achieved through the destruction of lymphocytes that recognize self-antigens? A. clonal-selection theory B. clonal-deletion theory C. clonal-anergy theory D. monoclonal-antibody theory
Q: Matching Questions Once a B lymphocyte has been activated to an antigen, it travels to a secondary lymphoid organ and forms a ______ where cloning occurs. A. MHC molecule B. FAS C. CD4 D. germinal center
Q: Matching Questions The process in which lymphocytes that recognize self-antigens are prevented from being activated is A. clonal anergy. B. clonal deletion. C. clonal selection. D. apoptosis.
Q: Matching Questions ________ tolerance involves complex processes involving lymphocytes outside the thymus and bone marrow. A. Central B. Deletion C. Peripheral D. Antigen
Q: Matching Questions __________ is a technique for artificially gaining active immunity through exposure to non-virulent pathogens or nonpathogenic antigens. A. Allergy B. Delayed-hypersensitivity C. Vaccination D. Auto-immunity
Q: Matching Questions The success of vaccinations was first demonstrated by A. Jenner. B. Pasteur. C. Landsteiner. D. Kupffer.
Q: Matching Questions The clonal selection of B lymphocytes A. occurs due to the previous response of an individual to an antigen. B. results in the development of plasma and memory cells. C. results in an attenuated response the second time an individual is exposed to the antigen. D. All of the choices are correct.
Q: Matching Questions Sertoli cells in the testicular tubes produce _____ that protects the sperm from immune system destruction. A. FAS B. MHCs C. antibodies D. FAS ligands
Q: Helper T lymphocytes interact specifically with antigens presented with class-2 MHC molecules.
Q: Mineralocorticoids stimulate immune suppression by inhibiting interleukin-1 production.
Q: Matching Questions The binding of FAS and its FAS ligand will trigger A. interferon release. B. T lymphocyte activation. C. antibody production. D. T lymphocyte apoptosis.
Q: Matching Questions Some tumor cells may produce a surface molecule, which may defend them from T cell attack. These surface molecules are called A. FAS ligands. B. MHCs. C. CD8 coreceptors. D. antigens.
Q: Matching Questions Viral infection of target cells results in A. the presentation of viral antigens in class-2 MHC molecules. B. the activation of cytotoxic T cells when the CD4 coreceptor is occupied. C. the presentation of viral antigens in class-1 MHC molecules. D. activation of helper T cells when the CD8 coreceptor is occupied.
Q: Matching Questions Blocking the CD8 coreceptor would cause A. decreased activation of macrophages. B. decreased activation of helper T lymphocytes. C. decreased activation of cytotoxic T cells. D. decreased activation of the target cells.
Q: Immunological memory is responsible for the rapid secondary response to an antigen.
Q: Matching Questions The first successful vaccination with an attenuated virus was conducted by A. Jenner. B. Pasteur. C. Einstein. D. Newton.
Q: Matching Questions The ___________ immune response occurs faster, is stronger, and lasts longer than the __________ immune response. A. secondary, primary B. secondary, tertiary C. tertiary, primary D. primary, secondary
Q: Matching Questions Class-2 MHC molecles are found on all of the following EXCEPT A. macrophages. B. mature red blood cells. C. dendritic cells. D. lymphocytes.
Q: Matching Questions A class-2 MHC molecule is used to present a foreign antigen to a A. killer T lymphocyte. B. B lymphocyte. C. helper T lymphocyte. D. regulatory T lymphocyte.
Q: Matching Questions Presentation of a foreign antigen to a killer T lymphocytes requires a A. Class-1 MHC molecule and coreceptor CD8. B. Class-1 MHC molecule and coreceptor CD4. C. Class-2 MHC molecule and coreceptor CD8. D. Class-2 MHC molecule and coreceptor CD4.
Q: Matching Questions The activation of resting T lymphocytes is prevented by A. inhibiting interleuken-1 secretion by macrophages. B. inhibiting interleuken-4 by helper T-lymphocytes. C. stimulating secretion of interferons by T-lymphocytes. D. decreasing the secretion of tumor necrosis factors by macrophages.
Q: Matching Questions A mutation in the gene encoding for interleuken-3 would result in A. decreased conversion of B cells to plasma cells. B. decreased numbers of circulating mast cells. C. inhibition of macrophage activation. D. inhibition of leukocyte proliferation.
Q: Matching Questions New drugs are under development to treat AIDS that act to A. kill the virus. B. kill the target cells and prevent infection. C. inhibit the fusion of the HIV to the target cells. D. inhibit reverse transcriptase.
Q: Matching Questions Tissue transplants should have matching ______ to prevent rejection in the host. A. MHC molecules B. perforins C. interleukins D. All of the choices are correct.
Q: Matching Questions Antigen-presenting cells are necessary for ____ response to a foreign antigen. A. T lymphocyte B. B lymphocyte C. antibody D. macrophage
Q: All human cells have human leukocyte antigens on their membrane surface.
Q: T cells have receptors for antigens and will bind to free antigens like B cells.
Q: Matching Questions Which chromosome contains the genes for the major histocompatibility complex? A. chromosome 3 B. chromosome 6 C. chromosome 14 D. chromosome 19
Q: Matching Questions Individuals suffering from acquired immune deficiency syndrome have decreased numbers of circulating A. Regulatory T lymphocytes. B. Helper T lymphocytes. C. B lymphocytes. D. macrophages.
Q: Matching Questions What is the function of granzymes? A. polymerize cell membranes to form a large pore B. activate caspases that destroy the cell's DNA C. bind to the plasma membrane of the host cell D. activate complement
Q: Matching Questions Helper T cell activation occurs more readily if the antigen presenting cells are A. dendritic cells and macrophages. B. macrophages and mast cells. C. B and T lymphocytes. D. neutrophils and basophils.
Q: Matching Questions Blocking the _____ receptor on helper T lymphocytes may inhibit activation by antigen presenting cells. A. CD25 B. CD4 C. MHC D. IL-6
Q: Matching Questions What molecule is used to produce lymphokine-activated killer cells to treat some types of cancer? A. interleukin-2 B. interleukin-1 C. interleukin-4 D. G-CSF
Q: Matching Questions Bone marrow stem cells and mast cells proliferate in response to A. interleukin-1. B. interleukin-2. C. interleukin-3. D. interleukin-4.
Q: Matching Questions Inhibition of the actions of cytotoxic T lymphocytes causes A. decreased antibody secretion. B. decreased stimulation of B lymphocytes. C. increased secretion of perforin. D. None of the choices are correct.
Q: Matching Questions The primary target of the human immunodeficiency virus is A. the plasma cell. B. the memory cell. C. the macrophage. D. the helper T lymphocyte.
Q: Matching Questions _____________ may induce excess nitric oxide production in macrophages which could lead to the hypotension characteristic of septic shock. A. Exotoxin B. Interferon C. Endotoxin D. Complement
Q: Matching Questions Mutations in polypeptides called _____________ that are produced by T cells would prevent T cells from destroying infected cells. A. perforins B. antibodies C. histamines D. interferons
Q: During congestive heart failure A. high blood K+ causes cardiac arrest in systole. B. high blood Ca2+ causes cardiac arrest in systole. C. blood pools in front of the affected ventricle. D. renin secretion is stimulated.
Q: Left side heart failure may be caused by A. myocardial infarction. B. aortic valve stenosis. C. incompetent aortic and mitral valves. D. All apply.
Q: Right side heart failure results in increased right atrial pressure and peripheral congestion and edema.
Q: Left side heart failure results in pulmonary congestion and edema.
Q: Matching Questions Complement fragments stimulate all of the following EXCEPT A. chemotaxis. B. opsonization. C. histamine release. D. antibody production.
Q: Matching Questions C5 through C9 from the ______, creates a hole in the cell that permits fluid influx and lysis. A. classical pathway B. activation sequence C. membrane attack complex D. recognition complex
Q: Matching Questions T lymphocytes A. differentiate in the bone marrow. B. secrete antibodies. C. mature in the thymus. D. All of the choices are correct.
Q: Matching Questions What distinguishes killer T lymphocytes from other T lymphocytes? A. CD8 coreceptors B. CD4 coreceptors C. CD25 coreceptors D. CD15 coreceptors
Q: Inhibiting the actions of helper T lymphocytes may impair humoral immunity.
Q: Increasing interleuken-3 levels would limit the development of mast cells.
Q: Interactions between B cells and helper T cells stimulate the actions of killer T cells.
Q: The type of shock resulting from lipopolysaccharides is termed A. hypovolemic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. C. septic shock. D. neurogenic shock.
Q: Cardiogenic shock can result from A. myocardial infarction. B. increased cardiac output. C. increased sympathetic outflow to the heart. D. parasympathetic antagonists.
Q: ______________ is used to treat congestive heart failure. A. Histamine B. ACE inhibitors C. Calcium channel blockers D. Digitalis
Q: Secondary hypertension may result from A. a renin secreting tumor. B. an atrial natriuretic factor secreting tumor. C. an aldosterone antagonist. D. an epinephrine antagonist.
Q: Hypertension can be treated by all of the following EXCEPT A. ACE inhibitors. B. calcium channel blockers. C. diuretics. D. sympathetic agonists.
Q: Hypertension may cause A. increased afterload. B. hypertrophy of the ventricles and valve defects. C. broken capillaries in tissues and organs. D. All apply.
Q: Shock is characterized by hypotension.
Q: A person with a decreased blood pressure, rapid pulse, and cold clammy skin would be suffering from A. peripheral edema. B. hypovolemic shock. C. myocardial ischemia. D. atherosclerosis.
Q: Dangerously low blood pressure that results from infection is A. septic shock. B. anaphylactic shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. cardiogenic shock.
Q: Which is NOT a symptom of preeclampsia? A. hypertension B. proteinuria C. edema D. increased vasodilation
Q: Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
Q: As age increases, the maximum cardiac rate will A. increase. B. decrease. C. remain unchanged.
Q: The mean arterial pressure of a person with a blood pressure of 128/68 would be A. 20. B. 60. C. 68. D. 88.
Q: Hypertension increases afterload, making it more difficult for the ventricles to eject blood.
Q: Primary hypertension results as a complication of another disease.
Q: An adult with a blood pressure of 130/95 would have mild hypertension.
Q: Hypertension can be treated with sympathetic beta1-receptor antagonists.
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