Q&A Hero

Q: Ablation of the thyroid gland would cause a drop in basal metabolic rate.

Q: Activation of the sympathoadrenal system would cause A. hypoglycemia. B. diabetes insipidus. C. hyperglycemia. D. excessive weight gain.

Q: Starvation decreases metabolic rate by as much as A. 10%. B. 20%. C. 40%. D. 65%.

Q: Which of the following components of energy expenditure is greatest in an average, sedentary adult? A. basal metabolic rate. B. adaptive thermogenesis. C. physical activity. D. None of the choices are correct.

Q: One of the factors that increases body heat during adaptive thermogenesis is the production of ___________ by skeletal muscle. This product causes leakage of protons from the intermembrane space of the mitochondria. A. uncoupling protein B. insulin C. glycogen D. glucagon

Q: Adaptive thermogenesis is the heat energy expended by the body in response to all of the following EXCEPT A. increase in ambient temperature. B. digestion of food. C. physical activity. D. decrease in ambient temperature.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a caloric energy expenditure of the body? A. BMI B. physical activity C. BMR D. adaptive thermogenesis

Q: Ghrelin is postulated to be important as a satiety factor.

Q: The arcuate nucleus is a region of the thalamus involved in hunger regulation.

Q: _______ is a satiety factor that acts to suppress neuropeptide Y and stimulate MSH release. A. Leptin B. MSH C. Glucose D. Insulin

Q: Satiety would be induced by all of the following EXCEPT A. cholecystokinin. B. naloxone. C. morphine. D. serotonin.

Q: A tumor suppressing the activity of which brain area could induce obesity? A. ventromedial hypothalamus B. lateral hypothalamus C. dorsomedial hypothalamus D. anterior hypothalamus

Q: Which of the following are involved in short-term regulation of hunger? A. leptin and CCK B. ghrelin and CCK C. insulin and PYY D. leptin and insulin

Q: Which of the following are involved in long-term regulation of hunger? A. leptin and CCK B. ghrelin and CCK C. insulin and PYY D. leptin and insulin

Q: Which hunger hormone is released in between meals? A. CCK B. polypeptide YY C. MSH D. ghrelin

Q: Insulin resistance may be stimulated by elevated concentrations of all of the following EXCEPT A. tumor necrosis factor alpha. B. resistin. C. adiponectin. D. retinol binding protein 4.

Q: Low leptin levels are found in cases of starvation, anorexia, and bulimia.

Q: Which of the following are NOT signs of decreased leptin secretion? A. decline in helper T abilities B. delayed onset of puberty C. menstrual abnormalities D. increased hunger

Q: Exercising at low or moderate intensity promotes use of fatty acids by skeletal muscle.

Q: The risk of cardiovascular disease is increased A. in someone with a "pear shaped" body. B. in someone with an "apple shaped" body. C. in someone with a BMI less than 30. D. in someone with little intra-abdominal fat.

Q: Fat cells are less sensitive to insulin in A. obese individuals. B. anorexic individuals. C. individuals who do not exercise. D. individuals at their optimal weight.

Q: The BMI of a female weighing 130 pounds with a height of 68 inches would be closest to A. 2.4. B. 19.8. C. 76.5. D. 34.8.

Q: A female with a BMI of 25.5 would be considered A. obese. B. overweight. C. healthy. D. too thin.

Q: A BMI of over ____ is considered obese. A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35

Q: Which of the following is NOT true of metabolic syndrome? A. hypotension B. insulin resistance C. dyslidipemia D. central obesity

Q: Hyperphagia is produced by destroying the ventromedial area of the hypothalamus.

Q: A very thin female would have low amounts of leptin and may enter puberty late or experience amenorrhea.

Q: Obesity in adults results primarily from adipocyte hyperplasia.

Q: The nuclear receptor protein required for differentiation of ________ is PPARg (perioxisome proliferator activated receptor g). A. erythrocytes B. fibroblasts C. adipocytes D. reticulocytes

Q: Destruction of which cell type in the fetus would affect adipocyte number in the adult? A. myoblasts B. neuroblasts C. epiblasts D. fibroblasts

Q: __________ is an adipose tissue hormone that stimulates glucose utilization and fatty acid oxidation in muscle cells thereby producing an insulin-sensitizing, antidiabetic effect. A. Leptin B. Adiponectin C. TNF alpha D. Resistin

Q: The only energy source for the brain is A. glucose. B. glycogen. C. fatty acid. D. protein.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a circulating energy substrate? A. glucose B. glycogen C. fatty acids D. amino acids

Q: Where is the major site of body energy storage? A. brown fat B. liver C. white fat D. inside skeletal muscle cells

Q: The body's adipostat works in a negative feedback way to maintain adipose tissue to keep you from losing weight.

Q: Lipolysis is the process by which triglycerides are stored in adipocytes.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a nonenzymatic protection against oxidative stress? A. hydrogen peroxide B. glutathione C. ascorbic acid D. alpha-tocopherol

Q: Primary energy reserves include glycogen and fat.

Q: The preferred energy source for resting skeletal muscle is (are) A. glucose. B. glycogen. C. fatty acids. D. protein.

Q: Excessive production of free radicals that can damage lipids, proteins, and DNA is called A. inflammation. B. antioxidation. C. oxidative stress. D. quenching.

Q: A free radical has A. paired electrons. B. unpaired electrons. C. unbonded electrons. D. bonded electrons.

Q: The nitric oxide radical promotes vasodilation.

Q: Oxidative stress is associated with many diseases because of the buildup of free radicals in the nucleus of aerobic cells.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an enzymatic protection against oxidative stress? A. catalase B. superoxide dismutase C. alpha-tocopherol D. glutathioneperoxidase

Q: Which of the following is NOT an endogenous source of ROS (reactive oxygen species)? A. peroxisomes B. UV light C. mitochondria D. NADPH oxidase

Q: Which of the following is NOT an exogenous cause of ROS (reactive oxygen species) production? A. catalase B. drugs C. environmental toxins D. ionizing radiation

Q: What is the major nonenzymatic protective mechanism against oxidative stress? A. ascorbic acid B. alpha-tocopherol C. beta-carotene D. glutathione

Q: Which of the following is NOT true of oxidative stress? A. protects from development of type 2 diabetes mellitus. B. contributes to aging and degenerative diseases associated with aging. C. promotes the malignant growth of cancers. D. contributes to all inflammatory diseases.

Q: Tissue damage by free radicals is prevented to some extent by all of the following EXCEPT A. beta-carotene. B. vitamin C. C. vitamin D. D. vitamin E.

Q: Superoxide radicals have which of the following beneficial effects? A. killing bacteria B. promote proliferation of fibroblasts C. promote proliferation of lymphocytes D. All of the choices are correct.

Q: If an individual consumes excess calories in the form of carbohydrates, the excess energy is stored as A. glycogen. B. structural carbohydrates. C. fat. D. skeletal muscle.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid? A. leucine B. valine C. lysine D. proline

Q: Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin? A. vitamin E B. vitamin A C. vitamin C D. vitamin D

Q: The vitamin D derivative calcipotriene is used to treat the skin condition A. pellagra. B. beriberi. C. scurvy. D. psoriasis.

Q: Wound healing would be delayed due to a lack of A. vitamin E. B. vitamin C. C. potassium. D. vitamin A.

Q: Strict vegetarians may be susceptible to A. pernicious anemia. B. night blindness. C. pellagra. D. scurvy.

Q: Which of the following acts as an antioxidant within the body? A. vitamin C B. vitamin A C. vitamin K D. niacin

Q: Blood clotting requires A. vitamin C. B. vitamin D. C. vitamin K. D. vitamin E.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a function of derivatives of water-soluble vitamins? A. coenzymes in metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins B. forming hydrogen carriers NAD and FAD C. cofactors for enzymes D. intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate

Q: Which vitamin and its deficiency is NOT correctly matched? A. vitamin B1 - beriberi B. folate - pernicious anemia C. niacin - pellagra D. vitamin D - rickets

Q: Which of the following minerals is needed only in trace amounts by the body? A. sodium B. potassium C. iron D. calcium

Q: If an unsaturated fatty acid chain is 22 carbons long and the first of three double bonds is at the fifth carbon from the methyl end, it would be an A. omega-5 fatty acid. B. omega-22 fatty acid. C. omega-3 fatty acid. D. omega-16 fatty acid.

Q: Fatty acids which have double bonds between the carbons are called saturated fatty acids.

Q: The metabolic rate of an awake, relaxed person, 12 to 14 hours after eating, at a comfortable temperature is known as the A. average metabolic rate. B. basal metabolic rate. C. oxidative metabolic rate. D. metabolic rate.

Q: The main factor determining differences in energy requirements of individuals of similar gender and weight is the difference in A. physical activity. B. genetics. C. body temperature. D. height.

Q: Metabolic rate can be measured by the A. amount of heat generated by the body. B. heart and respiration rates. C. amount of oxygen consumed by the body. D. amount of heat generated and the amount of oxygen consumed by the body.

Q: A positive energy balance occurs when A. energy expenditures are greater than the calorie value of food. B. energy expenditures balance the calorie value of food. C. the calorie value of food is greater than energy expenditures. D. you lose weight.

Q: What is the average energy expenditure for an active man not engaged in heavy manual labor? A. 2100 kcal/day B. 2500 kcal/day C. 2900 kcal/day D. 3200 kcal/day

Q: Reactions that involve synthesis of DNA, proteins, and other molecules are considered A. anabolic. B. hydrolytic. C. catabolic. D. degradation.

Q: Individuals consuming diets containing omega-3 fatty acids are less likely to develop cardiovascular disease.

Q: There are nine essential amino acids and 2 essential fatty acids.

Q: Physiological jaundice of the newborn is due to high levels of A. free bilirubin. B. urobilinogen. C. conjugated bilirubin. D. None of the choices are correct.

Q: Excessive amounts of porphyrin heme groups in the liver is toxic and is called as porphyria.

Q: Which of the following processes is NOT a liver function? A. lipogenesis B. gluconeogenesis C. hydrolysis of sucrose D. glycogenolysis

Q: Zymogens are inactive forms of __________ enzymes. A. stomach B. liver C. pancreatic D. small intestine

Q: Trypsin is activated by the enzyme A. enterokinase. B. lipase. C. lactase. D. carboxypeptidase.

Q: Inhibition of exocrine pancreatic secretions results in A. decreased insulin secretion following meals. B. decreased bile synthesis and secretion. C. production of an acidic chyme. D. stimulation of enterokinase activity.

Q: Mutation of the gene encoding for cholecystokinin would limit pancreatic bicarbonate secretion.

Q: One gram of fat contains more energy than 2 grams of protein.

Q: Jaundice caused by the bile duct blocked by gallstones is created by high blood levels of A. free bilirubin. B. urobilinogen. C. conjugated bilirubin. D. None of the choices are correct.