Q&A Hero

Q: Tight junctions between ___________ are responsible for the formation of the blood-testis barrier. A. Leydig cells B. Sertoli cells C. spermatogonial cells D. trophoblast cells

Q: Removal of the ___________ would result in a lack of energy in the semen to support the sperm cells. A. seminal vesicles B. prostate C. testis D. epididymis

Q: Sperm are stored and matured in the A. vas deferens. B. seminal vesicles. C. epididymis. D. prostate gland.

Q: About 60% of the volume of semen is produced by the A. seminal vesicles. B. prostate gland. C. bulbourethral glands. D. testes.

Q: Emission and ejaculation are under parasympathetic nerve control.

Q: The movement of semen into the urethra is called A. emission. B. erection. C. ejaculation. D. ovulation.

Q: Viagra works by blocking ________________ in order to raise cGMP concentration and promote vasodilation of vascular smooth muscle of the penis to produce an erection. A. 5-alpha reductase B. aromatase C. ATPase D. cGMP phosphodiesterase

Q: Nitric oxide released by endothelial cells in vascular smooth muscle is responsible for smooth muscle relaxation and therefore responsible for which of the following? A. reduced blood flow to bronchioles B. increased blood flow in placenta C. increased blood flow to the fetus D. penile erection

Q: The most successful method of contraception is A. vasectomy. B. oral contraceptives. C. the rhythm method. D. condom usage.

Q: A lack of vitamin D A. stimulates increased calcitonin secretion. B. causes osteomalacia in children. C. decreases absorption of dietary calcium. D. inhibits PTH secretion.

Q: People who have had their thyroid glands removed will need to take pharmacological levels of calcitonin to maintain blood calcium balance.

Q: Spermatogenesis is regulated by A. FSH. B. testosterone and its derivatives. C. growth hormone. D. progesterone.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a function of Sertoli cells? A. production of androgen-binding protein B. FSH stimulation of spermiogenesis C. protection of developing sperm from the male's immune system D. production of testosterone

Q: The actions of parathyroid hormones are is antagonized by the actions of A. vitamin D. B. calcitonin. C. estradiol. D. insulin.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an action of parathyroid hormone? A. stimulates osteoclasts to resorb calcium B. stimulated osteoblasts to deposit calcium C. stimulates kidneys to reabsorb calcium D. stimulates formation of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3

Q: Which of the following can regulate the skeletal system? A. estrogen B. testosterone C. calcitonin D. All of the choices are correct.

Q: What hormone is necessary for the epiphyseal discs (growth plates) to seal and stop bone growth in length? A. calcitonin B. estrogen C. PTH D. leptin

Q: Osteoporosis A. is most common in premenopausal women. B. does not occur in men. C. can be treated by stimulating osteoclasts. D. can be limited by estrogen-replacement therapy.

Q: Leptin has an indirect effect on the deposition of calcium into bone.

Q: Osteomalacia results from excess vitamin D.

Q: Microgravity reduces bone density that exercise machines have not been able to counter.

Q: Bone resorption is produced by the action of _____________, which return bone calcium and phosphate to the blood. A. osteoblasts B. osteoclasts C. osteocytes D. calcitonin

Q: _________ is characterized by parallel losses of mineral and organic matrix from bone. A. Osteomalacia B. Rickets C. Osteoporosis D. Osteitis deformans (Paget's disease)

Q: Cells synthesizing hydroxyapatite in bones are termed as A. osteoblasts. B. osteoclasts. C. osteocytes. D. osteosarcoma cells.

Q: To mobilize calcium from bone, osteoclasts bind to bone and transport ________ into the bone matrix to dissolve calcium. A. phosphate B. calcitonin C. PTH D. H+

Q: Osteoclast (growth or function) is inhibited by A. calcitonin. B. osteoprotegrin. C. osteoblasts. D. All of the choices are correct.

Q: Hypocalcemia enhances the excitability of nerves and muscles because of the ____ permeability of the cell membrane to ___. A. increased, K+ B. decreased, K+ C. increased, Na+ D. decreased, Na+

Q: Ablation of the thyroid gland would increase plasma Ca2+.

Q: The thyroid gland secretes all of the following EXCEPT A. thyroxin. B. triiodothyronine. C. calcitonin. D. parathyroid hormone.

Q: Growth hormone A. stimulates hepatic somatomedin secretion. B. directly stimulates bone growth. C. inhibits lipolysis. D. stimulates tissue glucose utilization.

Q: _________ lipolysis would result from inadequate cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex. A. Increased Decreased C. No change in Chapter 19

Q: A stressful situation would stimulate _____________ gluconeogenesis. increased B. decreased C. no change in Chapter 19

Q: Glucose regulation by hydrocortisone (cortisol) would be impaired by ablation of the A. adrenal medulla. B. thyroid gland. C. Islets of Langerhans D. adrenal cortex.

Q: In brown fat, norepinephrine stimulates A. beta1-adrenergic receptors. B. beta2-adrenergic receptors. C. beta3-adrenergic receptors. D. All of the choices are correct.

Q: What hormone is needed to set the BMR? A. calcitonin B. cortisol C. thyroxine D. glucagon

Q: The actions of thyroxine ________ the production of metabolic heat. increase B. decrease C. have no effect on Chapter 19

Q: Children with kwashiorkor have low growth rates and low levels of IGF-1.

Q: The actions of insulin are often mediated by insulin-like growth factors.

Q: IGF-1 and IGF-2 are known as __________ because they mediate the actions of growth hormone. A. somatostatins B. somatomedins C. somatotropins D. None of the choices are correct.

Q: ________ is caused by the oversecretion of growth hormone in adults. A. Gigantism B. Myxedema C. Acromegaly D. Osteomalacia

Q: Growth hormone secretion is _____________ during sleep. A. increased B. decreased C. increased, then stopped D. decreased, then increased

Q: Which of the following lifestyle changes can improve glucose intolerance and possibly prevent the onset of type 2 diabetes? A. increase saturated fat in the diet B. reduce fiber in the diet C. increase daily exercise D. reduce stress

Q: Insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes mellitus can cause A. increased hepatic secretion of glucose and decreased uptake by skeletal muscles. B. increased hepatic secretion of glucose and increased uptake by skeletal muscles. C. decreased hepatic secretion of glucose and decreased uptake by skeletal muscles. D. decreased hepatic secretion of glucose and increased uptake by skeletal muscles.

Q: ______________ is an exaggerated response of beta cells to a rise in blood glucose usually seen in those predisposed to type 2 diabetes. A. Hyperglycemia B. Reactive hypoglycemia C. Stress hyperglycemia D. Exercise hypoglycemia

Q: Glucagon and cortisol increase lipolysis.

Q: Type II diabetes mellitus A. is characterized by destruction of the pancreatic alpha cells. B. is characterized by destruction of the pancreatic beta cells. C. usually occurs in children. D. is the most common form of diabetes.

Q: Uncontrolled type I diabetes mellitus A. results in hypertension. B. induces metabolic acidosis. C. increases brain glucose utilization. D. decreases hepatic ketogenesis.

Q: Which of the following is true of type 1 diabetes mellitus? A. Lack of insulin leads to hypertension and decreased fatty acids in the blood. B. Lack of insulin caused a decrease in glucagon production. C. Glucagon production increases that leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis. D. Lack of insulin leads to hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis.

Q: Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune disease with T cell destruction of beta cells.

Q: Exercise increases the amount of GLUT4 carriers in skeletal muscle.

Q: Drugs that activate PPAR gamma receptors are useful in the treatment of what metabolic disorder? A. type 1 diabetes B. type 2 diabetes C. diabetes insipidus D. acromegaly

Q: During the absorptive state, catabolic reactions are favored over anabolic reactions.

Q: The major hormone promoter of anabolism is A. glucagon. B. somatostatin. C. epinephrine. D. insulin.

Q: What organ has the most insulin-stimulated glucose uptake in the absorptive state? A. skeletal muscle B. brain C. liver D. cardiac muscle

Q: Once glycogen stores have been met, an excess of calories results in the production of fat.

Q: Skeletal muscle glycogen is the primary source of stored glucose for nervous tissue during fasting.

Q: What hormone is most important for maintaining blood glucose levels during the post-absorptive or fasting states? A. insulin B. glucagon C. somatostatin D. thyroxine

Q: Formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate molecules is called as A. glycogenolysis. B. glycolysis. C. gluconeogenesis. D. ketogenesis.

Q: Insulin secretion is often normal in individuals with type I diabetes mellitus.

Q: Destruction of which pancreatic cells would cause hyperglycemia? A. alpha cells B. beta cells C. delta cells D. None of the choices are correct.

Q: Insulin promotes cellular uptake of glucose by inserting these channels into plasma membranes. A. uncoupling protein B. glucagon C. Glut4 D. leptin

Q: Destruction of the alpha cells of the pancreas would decrease glucagon secretion.

Q: Elevated blood glucose triggers insulin secretion.

Q: Stress hyperglycemia results from the effects of epinephrine and glucagon.

Q: ____________ is made by the delta cells of the pancreas. A. Glucose B. Somatostatin C. Glucagon D. All of the choices are correct.

Q: How much of the blood glucose does the brain use when a person is at rest? A. 30% B. 40% C. 60% D. 80%

Q: The oral glucose test is a measure of the ability of the alpha cells to secrete insulin and of the ability of insulin to increase blood glucose levels.

Q: Insulin secretion is stimulated by _____________ blood glucose concentrations. increased B. decreased C. unchanged Chapter 19

Q: The effects of glucagon are _____________ by insulin. A. enhanced B. opposed C. synergized D. agonized

Q: Epinephrine increases lipolysis and ketogenesis.

Q: Which of the following increase(s) lipogenesis? A. insulin B. epinephrine C. glucagon D. All of the choices are correct.

Q: Lipolysis is increased by A. epinephrine. B. growth hormone. C. glucagon. D. All of the choices are correct.

Q: Which hormone has no effect on blood glucose levels? A. insulin B. thyroid hormone C. growth hormone D. epinephrine

Q: Elevated concentrations of glucagon would result in A. decreased lipolysis. B. decreased glycogen synthesis. C. increased gluconeogenesis. D. increased lipogenesis.

Q: Lipolysis and gluconeogenesis are stimulated when A. insulin and glucagon are both decreasing. B. insulin and glucagon are both increasing. C. insulin is increasing and glucagon is decreasing. D. insulin is decreasing and glucagon is increasing.

Q: The hormone that antagonizes the effect of growth hormone is A. glucagon. B. thyroxin. C. insulin. D. epinephrine.

Q: The period between meals is A. absorptive state. B. fasting state. C. postabsorptive state. D. Both fasting and postabsorptive state.

Q: To decrease hunger, MSH must bind to its receptor, ______ in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus. A. neuropeptide Y B. agouti-related protein C. melanocortin 4 D. PYY

Q: Ablation of the thyroid gland would cause a drop in basal metabolic rate.

Q: Activation of the sympathoadrenal system would cause A. hypoglycemia. B. diabetes insipidus. C. hyperglycemia. D. excessive weight gain.