Q&A Hero

Q: Matthew was prenatally exposed to alcohol. His physical growth is typical and he has no facial abnormalities. However, he has impaired motor coordination, attention span, and memory. Matthew was probably born with A)fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). B)alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND). C)partial fetal alcohol syndrome (p-FAS). D)a genetic disorder.

Q: Jenna's physical growth is slow. She has short eyelid openings, a thin upper lip, a flattened philtrum, and brain injury. Jenna€s mother probably __________ during pregnancy. A)drank heavily B)smoked cigarettes C)used cocaine D)used methadone

Q: From one-third to one-half of nonsmoking pregnant women A)use alcohol regularly. B)smoked prior to finding out they were pregnant. C)take antidepressants. D)are "passive smokers."

Q: Beatrice has smoked throughout her pregnancy. Now in her seventh month, Beatrice is considering quitting. You can tell her that A)the damage was already done during the germinal period. B)if she quits now, she reduces the likelihood that her infant will be born underweight. C)the damage was already done during the period of the embryo. D)quitting now will not reduce the likelihood that her infant will have colic.

Q: It is difficult to isolate the precise damage caused by illegal drug use during pregnancy because A)most drug-using mothers refuse to participate in teratology research. B)the majority of babies born to drug-using mothers do not survive for more than a few days. C)most drug-using mothers quit during the first trimester of pregnancy. D)users often take several drugs, display other high-risk behaviors, and suffer from poverty and other stresses.

Q: Mateo was born prematurely to Yvonne, a cocaine addict. Mateo€s caregivers can expect that A)he will have high blood pressure. B)his cries will be abnormally shrill and piercing. C)he will overcome the harmful effects of drug exposure by age 3. D)his motor development will be especially rapid during the first year.

Q: High doses of caffeine during pregnancy A)increase the risk of low birth weight. B)is only safe during the first trimester. C)can result in gross fetal abnormalities. D)is linked to respiratory distress in childbirth.

Q: Willa, who is pregnant, gets headaches on a regular basis and takes aspirin to relieve the pain. What should you tell Willa about the effects of aspirin use on the developing organism? A)Regular aspirin use is completely safe during pregnancy. B)Regular aspirin use can cause gross deformities of the arms and legs during the embryonic period. C)Regular aspirin use is linked to low birth weight and poorer motor development. D)Regular aspirin use is linked to elevated incidence of birth complications, including respiratory distress.

Q: Currently, the most widely used potent teratogen is prescribed A)as a sedative. B)to treat severe acne. C)to prevent miscarriages. D)to treat depression.

Q: Daughters of mothers who took __________ showed unusually high rates of cancer of the vagina, malformations of the uterus, and infertility as they reached adolescence and young adulthood. A)thalidomide B)isotretinoin C)diethylstilbestrol (DES) D)aspirin

Q: Children exposed to a sedative called thalidomide were often born A)with noncancerous tumors. B)six to eight weeks premature. C)with severe cognitive delays . D)with gross deformities of the arms and legs.

Q: At birth, Megan weighed 9.5 pounds. Research shows that she is at an increased risk of __________ in adulthood. A)diabetes B)lung cancer C)breast cancer D)stroke

Q: Jesse weighed 3.3 pounds when he was born. Research shows that he is at an increased risk of __________ in adulthood. A)prostate cancer B)diabetes C)lymphatic cancer D)Alzheimer's disease

Q: Carefully controlled animal experiments reveal that a poorly nourished, underweight fetus experiences changes in body structure and function that greatly increase the risk of __________ in adulthood. A)breast cancer B)diabetes C)Alzheimer's disease D)cardiovascular disease

Q: During the fetal period, A)teratogens rarely have any impact. B)teratogens are most likely to cause serious defects. C)the ears can be strongly affected by teratogens. D)teratogenic damage usually causes miscarriage.

Q: The __________ is the time when serious defects from teratogens are most likely to occur. A)germinal period B)embryonic period C)fetal period D)third trimester

Q: Which of the following statements about prenatal sensitive periods with respect to teratogens is true? A)The fetal period is the time when serious defects are most likely to occur. B)During the embryonic period, teratogens usually affect the growth of sensory organs, such as the eyes and ears. C)In the germinal period, before implantation, teratogens rarely have any impact. D)During the fetal period, teratogens have no impact on the developing organism.

Q: The __________ and __________ have a long period of sensitivity to teratogens. A)hands; feet B)palate; mouth C)arms; legs D)brain; eyes

Q: The harm done by teratogens A)is not always simple and straightforward. B)always creates a monstrosity or malformation. C)is never subtle. D)can rarely be prevented.

Q: In the eighth month of pregnancy, A)fetal growth doubles. B)a layer of fat is added to assist with temperature regulation. C)most fetuses assume an upright position. D)neurons are produced at a rapid rate.

Q: In the final three months of pregnancy, the fetus A)gains more than 5 pounds and grows 7 inches. B)spends the majority of the day awake. C)assumes a right-side-up position. D)gains less than 2 pounds and grows less than 3 inches.

Q: A study involving the fetal heart rate's response to auditory stimuli during the third trimester suggests that fetuses A)cannot hear sounds from the outside world. B)can remember for at least a brief period. C)cannot distinguish between their mother's voice and a stranger's voice. D)cannot distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar melodies.

Q: During the third trimester, A)the fetus spends the majority of the day awake. B)painkillers should be used in any surgical procedures performed on a fetus. C)fetuses can hear bodily noises but not noises that occur outside of the womb. D)higher fetal activity is linked with abnormal neurological development.

Q: In one study, more active fetuses during the third trimester became 2-year-olds who A)were easily overwhelmed by sensory stimulation. B)had trouble establishing a regular sleep-wake pattern. C)had irregular eating schedules. D)were less fearful.

Q: Dimitri was very active in the third trimester. As a 1-year-old, he will probably A)handle frustration well. B)be very fearful. C)refuse to interact with unfamiliar adults. D)be easily frustrated.

Q: Carmen is prematurely delivering her baby at 28 weeks. The baby will probably A)not survive. B)need oxygen assistance to breathe. C)experience intense pain. D)spend the next few weeks with no periods of alertness.

Q: The age of viability occurs sometime between _____ and _____ weeks. A)18; 22 B)20; 24 C)22; 26 D)26; 30

Q: Sara's doctor is looking inside her uterus using fetoscopy. Her 22-week-old fetus may react by A)grabbing at the light. B)blinking its eyes. C)shielding its eyes. D)kicking at the light.

Q: From the twentieth week until birth, A)brain weight increases tenfold. B)glial cells decrease at a rapid rate. C)the fetus is viable. D)brain growth slows.

Q: Lanugo appears over the entire body during the __________ of pregnancy. A)second month B)third month C)second trimester D)third trimester

Q: During her first prenatal visit, LaToya's doctor explains that the __________ prevent(s) the skin from chapping during the long months spent bathing in the amniotic fluid. A)villi B)vernix C)glial cells D)chorion

Q: During Zola's third month of pregnancy, she should A)be able to feel the baby move. B)avoid regular exercise. C)be able to hear the baby's heartbeat through a stethoscope. D)be able to tell when the baby is alert.

Q: Mel wonders when he will be able to find out the sex of his baby. You tell him that he should be able to detect the sex of the fetus with ultrasound by the __________ week of pregnancy. A)ninth B)twelfth C)fifteenth D)eighteenth

Q: During the third month of pregnancy, A)the fetus can suck its thumb. B)tiny buds become arms, legs, fingers, and toes. C)neuron production begins. D)the eyes, ears, and nose form.

Q: During the period of the fetus, the A) developing organism increases rapidly in size. B) most rapid prenatal changes take place. C) heart begins to pump blood. D) brain is formed.

Q: During the second month of pregnancy, the embryo A)can be irritated by sounds. B)has rapid eye movements. C)responds to touch. D)shields its eyes in response to light.

Q: During the second month of pregnancy, the A)embryo reacts to light. B)embryo kicks and bends its arms. C)heart begins to pump blood. D)heart develops separate chambers.

Q: At the beginning of the period of the embryo, the __________ system develops fastest. A)nervous B)circulatory C)digestive D)skeletal

Q: The __________ becomes the nervous system. A)ectoderm B)mesoderm C)endoderm D)trophoblast

Q: The most rapid prenatal changes take place during the A)germinal period. B)period of the fetus. C)period of the embryo. D)final trimester.

Q: Valerie, two months pregnant, wonders how food and oxygen are delivered to the developing organism. You should tell Valerie that the __________ performs this function. A)chorion B)amnion C)placenta D)neural tube

Q: The placenta is connected to the developing organism by the A)uterine wall. B)amnion. C)chorion. D)umbilical cord.

Q: Tiny fingerlike villi A)emerge from the chorion. B)become the skin. C)become the nervous system. D)develop the skeleton.

Q: The __________ produces blood cells until the developing liver, spleen, and bone marrow are mature enough to take over this function. A)amnion B)chorion C)placenta D)yolk sac

Q: The amnion A)develops into the nervous system and the skin. B)surrounds the chorion. C)contains one large vein that delivers blood to the developing organism. D)encloses the developing organism in amniotic fluid.

Q: Between the seventh and the ninth days after fertilization, __________ occurs. A)the period of the embryo B)the period of the fetus C)implantation D)cell duplication

Q: The thin outer ring of cells on a blastocyst, termed the trophoblast, will become the A)new organism's skin and hair. B)structures that provide protective covering and nourishment. C)embryonic disk. D)nervous system and skin.

Q: The __________ becomes the new organism. A)embryonic disk B)trophoblast C)amnion D)chorion

Q: The germinal period lasts A)for about 13 weeks, or a trimester. B)from fertilization to implantation. C)for about 6 weeks. D)from conception to fertilization.

Q: Following conception, the one-celled __________ multiplies and forms a(n) __________. A)blastocyst; zygote B)blastocyst; embryo C)zygote; blastocyst D)embryo; fetus

Q: Most conceptions result from intercourse A)during the first week of the menstrual cycle. B)during the last week of the menstrual cycle. C)on the day of ovulation or during the two days following it. D)on the day of ovulation or during the two days preceding it.

Q: The ovum can survive for __________ after it is released into the fallopian tube. A)a couple of hours B)one day C)four days D)six days

Q: Sperm live for up to A)twelve hours. B)two days. C)four days. D)six days.

Q: The male produces sperm in the __________, two glands located in the __________. A)penis; scrotum B)scrotum; penis C)testes; penis D)testes; scrotum

Q: The __________ secretes hormones that prepare the lining of the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum. A)ovaries B)corpus luteum C)fallopian tubes D)cervix

Q: An ovum bursts from one of a woman's two __________ and is drawn into one of two __________. A)ovaries; testes B)fallopian tubes; ovaries C)fallopian tubes; placentas D)ovaries; fallopian tubes

Q: Research on childbearing reveals that A)fertility problems do not increase for men between ages 25 and 45. B)fertility problems among women do not show any increase until age 40. C)reproductive technologies are equally successful among younger and older parents. D)a 40-year-old man is less fertile than a 25-year-old man.

Q: Which of the following statements about birthrate trends between 1970 and 2012 is true? A)The birthrate increased during this period for women 20 to 24 years of age. B)The birthrate decreased during this period for women 25 years of age and older. C)For women in their thirties, the birthrate during this period rose nearly fivefold. D)The greatest decline in the birthrate during this period was for women in their thirties.

Q: Research shows that only children __________ children with siblings. A)are more intelligent than B)are as well-adjusted as C)have more emotional problems than D)are less intelligent than

Q: Which of the following statements is supported by research on family size? A)Parental quality declines as new children are born. B)New births lead to an increase in maternal affection toward older siblings. C)Limiting family size increases the chances of having children with high intelligence test scores. D)As new children are born, parents tend to reallocate their energies.

Q: More often than in the past, couples today A)get divorced before their childbearing plans are complete. B)are confident about their readiness for parenthood. C)bring children into stable marriages. D)have their first child before the age of 25.

Q: Currently, the average number of children per woman of childbearing age is _____ in the United States. A)3.1 B)2.7 C)2.1 D)1.8

Q: Most U.S. adults plan to have A)no children. B)one child. C)no more than two children. D)at least three children.

Q: Greater freedom to choose whether, when, and how to have children makes contemporary family planning __________ than it was in the past. A)less challenging B)more intentional C)less important D)more random

Q: When asked about the disadvantages of parenthood, Americans and Europeans most often cite A)loss of privacy. B)financial strain. C)role overload. D)work conflicts.

Q: When asked about the advantages of parenthood, Americans and Europeans most often cite A)the warm, affectionate relationship that children provide. B)having a source of financial support in later life. C)the sense of future continuity. D)the opportunity to deepen their marital relationship.

Q: A survey of over 5,000 U.S. adults of childbearing age revealed that more than 90 percent A)do not want to have any children. B)have negative views about the idea of parenthood. C)have two or more children. D)already have children or are planning to have them.

Q: Changing cultural values in Western industrialized nations allow people to __________ than a generation or two ago. A)have many children with less fear of social criticism B)remain childless with far less fear of social criticism C)more often emphasize societal obligation over individual fulfillment D)more often choose to give their first child a sibling

Q: Today, in Western industrialized nations, the issue of whether to have children is a A)biological given. B)compelling social expectation. C)matter of true individual choice. D)matter of legacy.

Q: Define and provide an example of niche-picking.

Q: Compare and contrast collectivist and individualistic societies. Why is the collectivism-individualism distinction controversial?

Q: How do family-neighborhood ties reduce parenting stress and promote child development?

Q: Discuss direct and indirect influences on family functioning, and provide an example of each.

Q: Describe phenylketonuria (PKU). Explain how it occurs and how it is treated.

Q: Summarize factors that account for the dramatic rise in fraternal twinning and other multiple births in industrialized nations over the past several decades.

Q: Development is best understood as A)genetically determined. B)environmentally influenced. C)a series of complex exchanges between nature and nurture. D)an unsolvable puzzle.

Q: Which of the following individuals is the most likely to score high in impulsivity, according to research on smoking? A)Daniel, who has a DD genetic makeup and a mother who smoked during pregnancy B)Reba, who has a DD genetic makeup and a nonsmoking mother C)John, who has a DD genetic makeup and a mother who smoked prior to becoming pregnant D)Samantha, who has a DB genetic makeup and a mother who smoked during pregnancy

Q: Identical twins Jada and Olivia were very similar in personality throughout childhood. After high school, Jada majored in music and became an elementary school teacher, while Olivia earned a medical degree and joined Doctors Without Borders, traveling to countries gripped by war and epidemics. Later in life, Olivia was more prone to risk-taking than Jada. This difference in personality is a result of A)niche-picking. B)alterations to Olivia's chromosome-5 gene. C)mutations in Olivia's DD genetic makeup. D)methylation.

Q: According to the concept of epigenesis, A)development results from ongoing, bidirectional exchanges between heredity and all levels of the environment. B)children's genetic makeup causes them to receive, evoke, and seek experiences that actualize their inborn tendencies. C)heredity restricts the development of some characteristics to just one or a few outcomes. D)children's genetic inheritance constrains their responsiveness to varying environments.

Q: The relationship between heredity and environment is A)is a one-way street. B)moves from genes to environment to behavior. C)is best measured using heritability estimates. D)is bidirectional.