Q&A Hero

Q: Travis is born three days after his due date and weighs five pounds. Travis is a(n) __________ infant. A)preterm B)small-for-date C)average-weight D)anoxic

Q: Which of the following statements about preterm infants is true? A)They are born below their expected weight considering the length of the pregnancy. B)They usually have more serious problems than small-for-date infants. C)Although they are small, their weight may still be appropriate, based on time spent in the uterus. D)They are more likely than small-for-date infants to show evidence of brain damage.

Q: Birth weight is the best available predictor of A)childhood obesity. B)adolescent anorexia. C)myopia. D)infant survival.

Q: Brianna was born seven weeks premature. She has respiratory distress syndrome. Her parents can expect the hospital to use A)a head-cooling device. B)whole-body cooling. C)a mechanical respirator. D)"kangaroo care."

Q: Which of the following statements about anoxia is true? A)After initial brain injury from anoxia, another phase of cell death can occur several weeks later. B)Whole-body cooling involves immersing an anoxic newborn in freezing water. C)The effects of mild or even moderate anoxia rarely persist beyond infancy. D)When development is severely impaired, the anoxia was probably extreme.

Q: In her third trimester, Alicia's doctor informed her that the placenta was covering the cervical opening. Alicia's condition is known as A)toxemia. B)placenta previa. C)placenta abruptio. D)toxoplasmosis.

Q: Placenta abruptio A)is a life-threatening event that involves premature separation of the placenta. B)occurs when the blastocyst implants so low in the uterus that the placenta covers the cervix. C)decreases the chance that the baby will experience anoxia during labor and delivery. D)involves the squeezing of the umbilical cord due to its position during delivery.

Q: Cerebral palsy A)affects one out of every 100 American children. B)is caused by brain damage before, during, or just after birth. C)is usually the result of placenta abruptio or placenta previa. D)is the result of oxygen deprivation in about 2 percent of cases.

Q: Tonya is pregnant for a second time. She hopes to have a natural labor, though her first delivery was cesarean. You should advise Tonya that A)she will be required to have a second cesarean delivery. B)a natural labor after a cesarean is associated with increased rates of maternal death. C)a natural labor after a cesarean is just as safe as a repeated cesarean delivery. D)a natural labor after a cesarean is associated with slightly increased rates of rupture of the uterus.

Q: Which of the following statements about the breech position is true? A)Cesarean delivery is never justified when the baby is in the breech position. B)The breech position decreases the chance of squeezing of the umbilical cord. C)Certain breech babies fare just as well with a normal delivery as with a cesarean. D)The breech position decreases the chances of head injuries during delivery.

Q: The rate of cesarean delivery is A)substantially higher in induced than spontaneous labors. B)lower today than it was forty years ago. C)currently about 10 percent in the United States. D)lower in the United States than in other industrialized countries.

Q: In induced labors, __________ than in naturally occurring labors. A)medication is likely to be used in smaller amounts B)the rate of cesarean delivery is less C)contractions are harder and closer together D)the chances of an instrument delivery are less

Q: Induced labors are justified when A)continuing the pregnancy threatens the well-being of the mother or baby. B)the baby has not arrived by its due date. C)the doctor determines that it is a convenient time to deliver the baby. D)the mother and father want the baby to arrive on a particular date.

Q: An induced labor A)is justified when the baby is in a breech position. B)often proceeds similarly to a naturally occurring one. C)is performed in about 3 percent of U.S. deliveries. D)is one that is started artificially.

Q: Vacuum extractors A)are used in nearly 30 percent of U.S. births. B)are more likely than forceps to tear the mother's tissues. C)have been rapidly replaced by forceps in most U.S. births. D)doubles the risk of bleeding beneath the baby's skin.

Q: __________ is appropriate if the mother€s pushing during the second stage of labor does not move the baby through the birth canal in a reasonable period of time. A)Instrument delivery B)Epidural analgesia C)Use of an anesthetic D)Induced labor

Q: Henrietta is considering using epidural analgesia during labor. You can tell her that newborns exposed to epidural analgesia tend to A)be irritable when awake. B)be hyperactive and animated. C)have trouble falling asleep. D)suck more aggressively when feeding.

Q: Epidural analgesia A)numbs the entire lower half of the body. B)limits pain reduction to the pelvic region. C)strengthens uterine contractions. D)reduces the chances of cesarean delivery.

Q: Currently, the most common approach to controlling pain during labor is A)epidural analgesia. B)pitocin. C)a spinal block. D)meditation.

Q: Which of the following statements about fetal monitoring is true? A)Fetal monitors are being phased out in U.S. hospitals because they are not necessary in most cases. B)Fetal monitoring is not helpful in detecting hidden problems with the baby. C)Critics worry that fetal monitors identify many babies as in danger who, in fact, are not. D)Fetal monitoring increases the likelihood of infant brain damage and death.

Q: Continuous fetal monitoring A)measures the baby's blood oxygen levels during labor. B)is required in most U.S. hospitals and used in over 85 percent of U.S. births. C)is linked to a decreased rate of cesarean deliveries. D)reduces the rate of infant brain damage and death in all pregnancies.

Q: Which of the following mothers is a good candidate for a home delivery? A)Heather, a healthy 43-year-old who previously had a cesarean delivery B)Helena, a first-time mom who wants to deliver her own baby unassisted C)Donna, a fifth-time mom whose baby is in a breech position D)Prudence, a 30-year-old second-time mom, assisted by a certified nurse-midwife

Q: Which of the following statements regarding home delivery is true? A)Many home births are handled by certified nurse-midwifes. B)Home delivery is more popular in the United States than in England. C)Nearly 5 percent of American women now choose home delivery. D)Home delivery is almost always dangerous for both mothers and babies.

Q: Compared with those who give birth lying on their backs, women who choose an upright position are likely to __________ to __________. A)more; have a longer labor B)more; need an episiotomy C)less; use pain-relieving medication D)more; deliver a breech baby

Q: Mothers who are supported during labor-either by a lay birth attendant or a relative or friend with doula training- A)more often need medication to control pain. B)less often have instrument-assisted or surgical deliveries. C)usually give birth at home or at the birth attendant's home. D)usually give birth lying flat on their backs with their feet in stirrups.

Q: Most natural, or prepared, childbirth programs draw on methods developed by Grantly Dick-Read and Fernand Lamaze, who recognized that A)new labor medications could be used to reduce the pain of childbirth. B)hospital costs could be saved if women used prepared childbirth methods. C)cultural attitudes had taught women to fear the birth experience. D)the mother's home was the safest and least painful place to give birth.

Q: Before the late 1800s, childbirth usually took place A)at home and was a family-centered event. B)at home and far away from other family members. C)in a hospital with trained midwives. D)in the home of a medical professional or in a hospital.

Q: In South America, the Jarara mother A)leans against the body of the "head helper" to give birth. B)gives birth in full view of the entire community. C)gives birth in a hammock with a crowd of women close by. D)gives birth in a freestanding birth center.

Q: Two Apgar ratings are given because A)one is given by the pediatrician, and one is given by the labor and delivery nurse. B)one is for appearance, pulse, and grimace, and the other is for activity and respiration. C)some babies have trouble adjusting at first but do quite well after a few minutes. D)one is taken immediately after birth, and the other is taken just before the newborn is released from the hospital.

Q: Andre received a combined Apgar score of 5. This means that Andre A)is in good physical condition. B)needs assistance in establishing breathing and other vital signs. C)is in serious danger and should receive emergency medical attention. D)was in danger at birth, but quickly recovered and is now in good physical condition.

Q: A combined Apgar score of _____ or better indicates that an infant is in good physical condition. A)4 B)5 C)6 D)7

Q: Dorita is given an Apgar appearance rating of 1. This means her A)body is pink with blue arms and legs. B)body, arms, and legs are completely blue. C)body, arms, and legs are completely pink. D)body is blue with pink arms and legs.

Q: Which of the following statements about the average newborn infant is true? A)Girls tend to be slightly heavier than boys. B)The average newborn is 23 inches long. C)Boys tend to be slightly longer than girls. D)The average newborn weighs 6½ pounds.

Q: Lily is 21 inches long and weighs 8 pounds at birth. She is __________ than the average newborn. A)shorter but heavier B)longer and heavier C)longer but lighter D)shorter and lighter

Q: The placenta is delivered during A)the first stage of labor. B)the second stage of labor. C)crowning. D)the third stage of labor.

Q: __________ occurs when the vaginal opening is stretched around the baby€s entire head. A)Lightening B)The bloody show C)Crowning D)Transition

Q: The infant is born during A)the first stage of labor. B)the second stage of labor. C)transition. D)the third stage of labor.

Q: Stage 2 of labor lasts __________ for a first baby and __________ in later births. A)an average of 12 to 14 hours; 4 to 6 hours B)an average of 4 to 6 hours; 20 to 50 minutes C)about 50 minutes; 20 minutes D)about 5 to 10 minutes; 90 minutes

Q: During transition, the A)baby is forced down and out of the birth canal. B)placenta is delivered. C)cervix opens completely. D)cervix begins to dilate and efface.

Q: Stage 1 of labor A)is the shortest. B)involves delivery of the baby. C)climaxes with a brief phase called transition. D)involves birth of the placenta.

Q: A sure sign that labor is only hours or days away is A)contractions in the upper part of the uterus. B)the bloody show. C)lightening. D)frequent urination.

Q: Lightening occurs when the A)amniotic sac is ruptured. B)plug of mucus is released from the cervix. C)fetus's head drops low into the uterus. D)first uterine contractions take place.

Q: An abnormal increase in maternal __________ in the third trimester of pregnancy is currently being evaluated as an early predictor of premature birth. A)corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) B)cortisol C)insulin D)thyroxine

Q: Cite reasons that some women do not seek prenatal care.

Q: Terra is Rh-negative and her husband, Marcus, is Rh-positive. Advise Terra about the consequences of this blood type incompatibility.

Q: Describe the effects of exercise during pregnancy.

Q: What are teratogens? What factors determine their impact?

Q: Describe the germinal period, including the major developments that occur during this period.

Q: When Americans and Europeans are asked about their motivations for parenthood, what are the most frequent advantages and disadvantages they list?

Q: The most important preparation for parenthood A)takes place in the context of the parents€ relationship. B)is having a positive relationship with one€s own parents. C)involves attending prenatal classes. D)is having support from extended family.

Q: Which of the following statements about models of effective parenthood is true? A)Overall, men are more likely than women to communicate effectively, be flexible when family problems arise, and build a healthy picture of themselves as successful parents. B)Parents who have had positive experiences in their own childhoods often have trouble building a healthy picture of themselves as parents and have conflicted relationships with their children. C)Many parents come to terms with negative experiences in their own childhoods, recognize that other options are available to them, and build healthier and happier relationships with their children. D)When men and women have had poor relationships with their own parents, they are more likely to develop positive images of themselves as parents.

Q: In a study of more than 100 U.S. first-time expectant married couples who were interviewed about their pregnancy experiences, A)an unplanned pregnancy was especially likely to spark positive feelings among participants. B)about one-third of participants reported mixed or neutral feelings about their pregnancies. C)no participants felt negatively about their pregnancies by the third trimester. D)about two-thirds of participants reported mixed or neutral feelings to learning they were expecting.

Q: In group prenatal care, A)expectant mothers are grouped by age, and each group is seen by an assigned health-care provider. B)trained leaders provide expectant mothers with a group discussion session after each medical checkup. C)expectant mothers and fathers take turns facilitating group discussions. D)whole families are included in prenatal visits, including mothers, fathers, and siblings.

Q: Which of the following mothers is most likely to receive inadequate prenatal care? A)Harriet, a 16-year-old African American B)Marissa, a 25-year-old Caucasian American C)Rachel, a 32-year-old Caucasian American D)Janette, a 40-year-old Hispanic American

Q: Kali's face, hands, and feet began to swell in the second half of her pregnancy. Kali's doctor began to monitor her blood pressure. The doctor was probably concerned about A)toxoplasmosis. B)maternal diabetes. C)Rh incompatibility. D)preeclampsia.

Q: Which of the following statements about research on memory impairments in infants of diabetic mothers is true? A)Prenatal iron depletion interferes with the cerebral cortex, causing long-term learning and academic problems in children of diabetic mothers. B)Damage to the hippocampus is not linked to long-term learning and academic problems in children of diabetic mothers. C)Diabetes-linked prenatal brain damage is linked to short-term memory impairments that can often be reversed with medication. D)As a result of iron depletion in critical brain areas, a diabetic pregnancy places the fetus at risk for lasting memory deficits.

Q: In later pregnancy, a diabetic mother's excess blood glucose causes the fetus to A)lose weight. B)grow unusually large. C)secrete abnormally low levels of insulin. D)develop chromosomal abnormalities.

Q: Infants born to teenagers have a higher rate of problems because A)teenagers' reproductive organs are not yet mature enough to support a pregnancy. B)teenagers are not yet physically ready to give birth. C)many pregnant teenagers are afraid to seek medical care. D)teenagers are exposed to more teratogens than other pregnant mothers.

Q: Danica is a healthy 35-year-old woman who is pregnant with her first child. Danica is A)more likely than a younger woman to have a baby with low birth weight. B)likely to have a longer and more difficult labor than a younger woman. C)more likely to have prenatal complications than a woman in her twenties. D)as likely as a younger woman to have no prenatal or birth complications.

Q: Rh factor incompatibility A)affects Rh-positive mothers. B)can result in infant death. C)cannot be prevented in most cases. D)usually affects firstborn children.

Q: Which of the following statements about Rh factor incompatibility is true? A)The damage caused by Rh incompatibility can be avoided if the mother receives a blood transfusion during delivery. B)Rh-positive blood is dominant and Rh-negative blood is recessive, so the chances are good that a baby will be Rh-positive. C)Rh-positive babies are routinely given a vaccine at birth to prevent the buildup of harmful Rh antibodies. D)The harmful effects of Rh incompatibility can be prevented if the newborn is immediately placed on a diet low in phenylalanine.

Q: Which of the following statements about the effectiveness of the Nurse-Family Partnership is true? A)The benefits of the intervention were the greatest for children from high-SES families. B)Trained paraprofessionals were more effective than professional nurses in preventing delayed mental development. C)As kindergartners, program children scored higher in language, but lower in intelligence, than comparison children. D)From their baby's birth on, home-visited mothers were on a more favorable life course than comparison mothers.

Q: One of the goals of the Nurse-Family Partnership is to A)eradicate prenatal drug use. B)lessen the effects of teratogens on developing organisms. C)promote early competent caregiving. D)provide family planning and genetic counseling.

Q: The relationship of social support to positive pregnancy outcomes and subsequent child development is __________ for __________ women. A)strongest; affluent B)moderate; minority C)particularly strong; low-income D)strongest; middle-income

Q: Stress-related prenatal complications are greatly reduced when mothers A)have partners and friends who offer social support. B)take a low dose of antianxiety medication during pregnancy. C)take a folic acid supplement during pregnancy. D)are placed on bed rest during the third trimester.

Q: Enriching women's diets with calcium A)can cause miscarriages in the germinal period. B)helps prevent neural tube defects. C)eliminates the risk of osteoporosis in offspring. D)helps prevent maternal high blood pressure.

Q: Taking a folic acid supplement around the time of conception reduces by more than 70 percent A)the risk of miscarriage. B)infantile hypothyroidism. C)the risk of Down syndrome. D)abnormalities of the neural tube.

Q: A severe famine in the Netherlands during World War II revealed that A)the sensitive-period concept operates with nutrition. B)malnutrition during the first trimester is not associated with miscarriage. C)malnutrition during the second trimester is associated with large head size. D)malnutrition during the third trimester is associated with physical defects.

Q: Marzanne is pregnant and wonders how much weight she should gain. Her doctor will probably recommend that she gain _____ to _____ pounds. A)10; 15 B)20; 25 C)25; 30 D)30; 35

Q: In healthy, physically fit women, __________ exercise is related to __________. A)regular aerobic; low birth weight B)frequent vigorous; a reduction in risk of high blood pressure C)regular moderate; a reduction in risk of maternal diabetes D)frequent vigorous; high birth weight

Q: Expectant mothers can avoid toxoplasmosis by A)making sure the vegetables they eat are clean. B)avoiding exposure to X-rays. C)avoiding eating swordfish. D)making sure that the meat they eat is well-cooked.

Q: Kelly, a pregnant 30-year-old, has contracted the most common parasitic infection. Kelly has A)rubella. B)toxoplasmosis. C)cytomegalovirus. D)herpes simplex 2.

Q: Which of the following statements about HIV and AIDS is true? A)Untreated HIV-infected expectant mothers pass the virus to the developing organism 10 to 20 percent of the time. B)About 15 to 25 percent of prenatal AIDS babies die by 1 year of age. C)There are no available drug therapies that reduce prenatal AIDS transmission without harmful consequences. D)AIDS progresses very slowly in infants, and rarely leads to death.

Q: The greatest damage from rubella occurs when it strikes pregnant mothers during the A)germinal period. B)embryonic period. C)second trimester. D)third trimester.

Q: Dioxin seems to impair the fertility of __________ prior to conception. A)X-bearing ova B)Y-bearing sperm C)X-bearing sperm D)Y-bearing ova

Q: Joslyn, a school custodian, is pregnant and works in an old school building where multiple layers of paint are flaking off the walls. To be safe, Joslyn should have the paint tested for A)polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs). B)mercury. C)dioxins. D)lead.

Q: In Taiwan, prenatal exposure to high levels of __________ in rice oil resulted in low birth weight, discolored skin, and delayed cognitive development. A)dioxins B)mercury C)polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) D)lead

Q: Pregnant women are wise to avoid __________ to reduce the likelihood of mercury exposure. A)getting X-rays B)changing cat litter boxes C)painting D)eating long-lived predatory fish

Q: Which of the following statements about radiation exposure during pregnancy is true? A)Low-level radiation from medical X-rays or industrial leakage is safe. B)Even low-level radiation can increase the risk of childhood cancer. C)The effects of radiation exposure are immediate and apparent. D)Radiation exposure affects physical development, but not cognitive or emotional development.

Q: __________ is safe to drink during pregnancy. A)No amount of alcohol B)One alcoholic beverage per day C)Three to five alcoholic beverages per week D)A few alcoholic beverages per month