Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following statements about how infants perceive the structure of speech is true? A)Rules that infants extract from the speech stream do not generalize to nonspeech sounds. B)Parents must directly teach word-order rules for infants to understand the basic grammar of their language. C)Infants locate words by discriminating syllables that often occur together from syllables that seldom occur together. D)Infants do not become sensitive to the speech structure of individual words until after their first birthday.

Q: Research indicates that around 7 to 9 months, infants A)detect when words are deliberately mispronounced. B)begin to divide the speech stream into wordlike units. C)become sensitive to syllable stress patterns in their own language. D)detect words that start with weak syllables.

Q: Perception studies demonstrate that A)Western adults, but not infants, can detect rhythmic-pattern deviations of non-Western music. B)Western children retain the ability to detect deviations in foreign musical rhythms throughout childhood. C)Western babies lose their ability to detect deviations in foreign musical rhythms by 12 months of age. D)daily opportunities to listen to non-Western music restores Western adults€ sensitivity to music rhythms.

Q: In a face perception study involving both human and monkey pairs, 9-month-old infants A)could discriminate the individual faces of both humans and monkeys. B)did not show a novelty preference when viewing the monkey pair. C)showed a novelty preference only when viewing the monkey pair. D)could not yet discriminate the individual faces of humans or monkeys.

Q: Between 6 and 8 months, infants A)become sensitive to syllable stress patterns in foreign languages. B)start to "screen out" sounds not used in their native tongue. C)do not yet recognize familiar words in spoken passages. D)prefer listening to a foreign language than their own language.

Q: Which of the following babies is most likely to develop manual skills first? A)Shane, an infant born in the United States B)Tord, an infant born in Norway C)Camille, an infant born in France D)Bintou, an infant born in Mali

Q: In cultures where mothers carry their infants on their hips or in slings for most of the day, A)infants are delayed in reaching and grasping. B)babies have rich opportunities to explore with their hands. C)manual skills develop later than in Western infants. D)the overstimulation causes babies to cry a great deal.

Q: By the end of the first year, a baby's ability to manipulate objects greatly expands with the development of A)the pincer grasp. B)the ulnar grasp. C)the fine-motor reflex. D)prereaching.

Q: Four-month-old Kaitlyn reaches for a toy. She grabs it by closing her fingers against her palm. Kaitlyn is using A)the pincer grasp. B)the grasp reflex. C)the ulnar grasp. D)prereaching.

Q: Five-month-old Raelle can be expected to __________ when an object is moved beyond her reach. A)extend one arm rather than both B)reduce her efforts C)revert to prereaching D)increase her efforts

Q: Reaching is largely controlled by A)hand-eye coordination. B)gross-motor development. C)vision and hearing. D)our sense of movement and location in space.

Q: Newborn Sam's poorly coordinated swipes toward an object in front of him is called A)the pincer grasp. B)the ulnar grasp. C)prereaching. D)voluntary reaching.

Q: Which of the following motor skills is believed to play the greatest role in infant cognitive development? A)crawling B)reaching C)rolling from back to side D)walking

Q: Which of the following mothers is most likely to actively discourage rapid motor development? A)Elyse, a Canadian mother B)Indira, a West Indian mother C)Biyaki, a Gusii mother D)Cheruiyot, a Kipsigis mother

Q: In Wayne Dennis's study of infants in Iranian orphanages, only 15 percent of the orphans were walking alone by 3 to 4 years of age because A)they spent the first year of their lives being carried by caregivers. B)they were malnourished and unable to acquire the strength to walk. C)they spent their days lying on their backs in cribs. D)rapid motor progress was actively discouraged by caregivers.

Q: In James Galloway and Esther Thelen's microgenetic study following babies from their first attempts until skill mastery, the infants A)scooted before crawling. B)first explored the toys with their feet. C)violated the proximodistal trend. D)required adult instruction to acquire motor skills.

Q: Dynamic systems theory shows us why motor development A)is generally slower in females than males. B)is hardwired into the nervous system. C)always follows the cephalocaudal trend. D)cannot be genetically determined.

Q: Baby Isaac combined his skills of kicking, rocking on all fours, and reaching in order to crawl. This is an example of A)coordinated trends. B)fine-motor coordination. C)gross-motor coordination. D)dynamic systems of action.

Q: Which of the following motor skills typically develops first? A)walking alone B)scribbling vigorously C)walking up stairs with help D)jumping in place

Q: Which of the following is an example of a fine-motor skill? A)standing B)throwing C)sitting up D)grasping

Q: Which of the following is an example of a gross-motor skill? A)climbing B)pointing C)reaching D)scribbling

Q: __________ fire identically when a primate hears or sees an action and when it carries out that action on its own. A)Imitation neurons B)Glial cells C)Mirror neurons D)Neurotransmitters

Q: The newborn's capacity to imitate A)has primarily been observed in Western cultures. B)disappears by two weeks of age. C)has been demonstrated in many ethnic groups and cultures. D)is limited to tongue protrusions.

Q: __________ preference assesses infants€ __________. A)Familiarity; recent memory B)Novelty; remote memory C)Novelty; recent memory D)Familiarity; reflexes

Q: Once habituation occurs, a new stimulus causes responsiveness to return to a high level, an increase called A)imitation. B)recovery. C)extinction. D)punishment.

Q: __________ refers to a gradual reduction in the strength of a response due to repetitive stimulation. A)Imitation B)Recovery C)Habituation D)Reinforcement

Q: At birth, the human brain is set up to be A)attracted to novelty. B)wary of change. C)attracted to familiarity. D)bored by repetition.

Q: When baby Rico whimpers and whines, his mother responds by ignoring him and refusing to pick him up. This decreases Rico's whining. The mother's behavior is an example of A)habituation. B)a reinforcer. C)recovery. D)punishment.

Q: A researcher hangs a mobile over the crib of 4-month-old Anya. When the researcher attaches Anya's foot to the mobile with a long cord, Anya can, by kicking, make the mobile turn. The turning of the mobile is an example of A)a reinforcer. B)punishment. C)an unconditioned stimulus. D)an conditioned response.

Q: Baby Calinda sucks on a bottle. The taste of the sweet liquid increases Calinda's sucking. This is an example of A)operant conditioning. B)habituation. C)classical conditioning. D)extinction.

Q: In operant conditioning, a(n) __________ increases the occurrence of a response. A)neutral stimulus B)conditioned stimulus C)reinforcer D)unconditioned stimulus

Q: Which of the following responses is very difficult to classically condition in young babies? A)contentment B)fear C)hunger D)sucking

Q: Young infants can be classically conditioned most easily when A)a conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with an unconditioned stimulus. B)the conditioned response is fear. C)the association between two stimuli has survival value. D)a neutral stimulus is paired with an unconditioned response.

Q: Prya has classically conditioned young Raj to suck when Prya touches Raj's stomach during feeding. If Prya repeatedly touches Raj's stomach without feeding him, Raj will A)gradually stop sucking in response to having his stomach touched. B)learn to suck without having his stomach touched. C)stop eating until Prim touches his stomach and feeds him again. D)increase his level of sucking in response to having his stomach touched.

Q: In classical conditioning, if the conditioned stimulus is presented alone enough times, without being paired with the unconditioned stimulus, __________ occurs. A)habituation B)extinction C)imitation D)recovery

Q: In classical conditioning, if learning occurs, the neutral stimulus is then called a(n) A)unconditioned response. B)neutral response. C)conditioned stimulus. D)conditioned response.

Q: Baby Paul's mother strokes his hair just before he eats. Now when Paul's mother strokes his hair, Paul begins to suck. The stroking is the __________, and the taste of milk is the __________. A)conditioned stimulus; neutral stimulus B)unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus C)neutral stimulus; unconditioned stimulus D)neutral stimulus; conditioned response

Q: Classical conditioning A)helps infants anticipate what is about to happen next. B)disappears once reflexive behaviors become voluntary. C)plays a vital role in the formation of social relationships. D)emerges only after newborn reflexes have begun to wane.

Q: In classical conditioning, once a baby's nervous system makes the connection between two stimuli, the __________ stimulus produces __________. A)conditioned; a neutral response B)conditioned; a reflexive response C)unconditioned; an unconditioned response D)neutral; the behavior by itself

Q: Ariana showed signs of growth faltering. An observant nurse intervened early, helping Ariana's parents with their own life challenges, encouraging sensitive caregiving, and coaching the family through Ariana's feeding problems. Ariana will probably A)remain small. B)show lasting cognitive difficulties. C)show quick catch-up growth. D)show lasting emotional difficulties.

Q: Six-month-old Luka's weight, height, and head circumference are substantially below age-related growth norms. Luka is withdrawn and apathetic. Luka's mother sometimes appears depressed and distant, at other times impatient and hostile. Luka most likely suffers from A)growth faltering. B)malnutrition. C)marasmus. D)food insecurity.

Q: An estimated 22 percent of U.S. children suffer from A)marasmus. B)food insecurity. C)kwashiorkor. D)iron deficiency anemia.

Q: Osita is a 4-year-old Ethiopian boy. He survived kwashiorkor and was recently adopted by a Canadian couple. Osita will probably A)continue to undereat even when food is plentiful. B)gain very little weight as his diet improves. C)have an average to high basal metabolism rate. D)suffer from lasting damage to the brain, heart, or other organs.

Q: Bulous is 20 months old and was recently weaned. He has an unbalanced diet very low in protein. Bulous has an enlarged belly, swollen feet, a skin rash, and thinning hair. Bulous most likely has A)iron-deficiency anemia. B)kwashiorkor. C)nonorganic failure to thrive. D)marasmus.

Q: Zahara, age 3 months, is painfully thin. Her mother is too malnourished to produce enough breast milk, and the supply of formula is inadequate for bottle-feeding. Zahara is probably in danger of dying from A)marasmus. B)growth faltering. C)kwashiorkor. D)nonorganic failure to thrive.

Q: Which of the following was a result of recent policy changes by the U.S. Special Supplemental Nutritional Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)? A)a lengthening of the duration of breastfeeding B)a decrease in enrollment in the fully breastfeeding option C)an increase in enrollment in the formula-only package option D)a decrease in funding for breastfeeding counseling for new mothers

Q: A study in which researchers made periodic home visits to several hundred low-income first-time mothers and their babies found that A)the majority of infants were breastfed. B)inappropriate feeding practices were pervasive. C)the majority of infants did not receive solid food soon enough. D)only about 25 percent of infants received juices by 6 months.

Q: Garrett, age 2 months, is an enthusiastic eater who nurses vigorously and gains weight quickly. Garrett's mom, Christine, is concerned that Garrett might be at risk of being permanently overweight. You can advise Christine that A)most chubby babies will continue to gain weight during toddlerhood and the preschool years. B)there is no evidence that rapid weight gain in infancy is related to later obesity. C)she should start supplementing Garrett€s diet with cereal. D)breastfeeding for the first six months is associated with a leaner body build through early childhood.

Q: The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services advises A)exclusive breastfeeding for the first 2 years. B)exclusive breastfeeding for the first 3 months. C)inclusion of breast milk in the baby's diet until at least 1 year. D)weaning from breast milk by age 6 months.

Q: In the United States, A)77 percent of mothers begin breastfeeding after birth, but more than one-third stop by 6 months. B)most mothers follow the advice of the World Health Organization regarding when to stop breastfeeding. C)breastfeeding has become more common, especially among low-income minority women. D)only 25 percent of preterm babies are breastfed at hospital discharge, despite the benefits of breast milk.

Q: Which of the following statements regarding breastfeeding is true? A)Breastfeeding should be combined with formula for a balanced diet. B)Breastfeeding helps increase spacing among siblings. C)Breastfeeding has become less common in industrialized nations. D)Breastfeeding is a reliable method of birth control.

Q: The World Health Organization recommends breastfeeding until age __________, with solid foods added at __________. A)3 months; 4 months B)6 months; 6 months C)1 year; 4 months D)2 years; 6 months

Q: Breastfed babies in poverty-stricken regions of the world A)are more likely than bottle-fed babies to be malnourished. B)should be given a vitamin-enriched supplement of commercial formula at least weekly. C)are far more likely than bottle-fed babies to survive the first year of life. D)should be breastfed until age 9 months, with solid food added at 3 months of age.

Q: Which of the following statements about breastfeeding is true? A)Human milk is lower in fat and higher in protein than the milk of other mammals. B)A mother who breastfeeds needs to add solid foods to her infant€s diet around 4 months. C)Breastfed babies suffer from more gastrointestinal problems than do bottle-fed infants. D)Breastfed infants accept new solid foods more easily than do bottle-fed infants.

Q: __________ percent of infants' total caloric intake is devoted to growth. A)Ten B)Fifteen C)Twenty-five D)Forty

Q: As long as negative environmental influences such as poor nutrition or illness are not severe, A)children and adolescents typically show catch-up growth once conditions improve. B)adopted children typically reach a height closer to their adoptive than biological parents' heights. C)body weight is more acutely influenced by eating habits rather than heredity. D)height and rate of physical growth are largely determined by the environment.

Q: In cultures where parent-child cosleeping is widespread, A)the rate of infant mortality from sudden infant death syndrome is high. B)parents and infants usually sleep on soft mattresses. C)infants often sleep in a cradle or hammock next to the parents' bed. D)infants tend to lie on their stomach or side facing away from the mother.

Q: One possible explanation for the high frequency of bedtime struggles in Western homes is that children A)are much more dependent than children from other cultures. B)are expected to sleep for more hours than children from other cultures. C)often eat late in the evening, which interferes with sleep. D)may feel stressed when they must fall asleep without assistance.

Q: Compared to their U.S. agemates, Dutch babies A)are put to bed later. B)sleep, on average, 2 hours less per day. C)sleep, on average, 2 hours more per day. D)have less predictable sleep schedules.

Q: Between birth and 2 years, A)fussiness increases. B)crying increases. C)the organization of sleep and wakefulness changes substantially. D)total sleep time increases slowly.

Q: Which of the following is an activity associated with experience-expectant brain growth? A)coloring a picture B)playing peekaboo C)learning to ride a bike D)playing the piano

Q: Experience-expectant brain growth A)is a result of specific learning experiences that vary widely across cultures. B)usually occurs later than experience-dependent brain growth. C)occurs naturally, as caregivers engage babies in enjoyable daily routines. D)provides mastery of skills that depend on extensive training.

Q: Which of the following is an activity associated with experience-dependent brain growth? A)writing a poem B)singing a song C)imitating facial expressions D)playing peekaboo

Q: Experience-dependent brain growth A)takes place through naturally occurring interactions with caregivers. B)provides a foundation for later-occurring, experience-expectant development. C)depends on ordinary experiences, such as moving about and exploring the environment. D)relies on specific learning experiences that vary widely across individuals and cultures.

Q: Nicole is considering sending her 8-month-old son Austin to a new academic learning center where infants are trained with letter and number flash cards. You can advise Nicole that A)Austin will likely score 10 to 15 points higher in IQ than agemates who attend traditional early childhood programs. B)although this program will not likely raise Austin€s IQ, it will probably help him learn to read more quickly. C)this program is as effective as a traditional early childhood program in promoting cognitive development. D)this program could overwhelm Austin and cause him to withdraw, thereby threatening his interest in learning.

Q: A study of children who had spent their first eight months or more in Romanian institutions and were then adopted into Canadian homes found that the longer the children spent in orphanage care, the __________ their __________. A)higher; cortisol levels B)lower; cortisol levels C)greater; anger control D)greater; impulse control

Q: A study of children who were transferred between birth and 3½ years from extremely deprived Romanian orphanages to adoptive families in Great Britain found that A)the longer the children spent in orphanage care, the higher their mental test scores during middle childhood and adolescence. B)most children were impaired in all domains of development, but those who were adopted before 6 months of age showed impressive cognitive catch-up. C)children who experienced adequate early nutrition were not negatively affected by early orphanage rearing. D)serious mental health problems only appeared in those children who spent more than 2 years in an orphanage.

Q: Alexia was born with cataracts in both eyes. What can you tell her parents about when she should have corrective surgery? A)Alexia should wait to have corrective surgery until adulthood when her eyes are fully mature. B)Alexia should not have corrective surgery during the first six months of life because her vision would be severely and permanently impaired. C)The longer cataract surgery is postponed beyond infancy, the less complete Alexia€s recovery in visual skills. D)Alexia should wait until later in childhood to have corrective surgery because there are no sensitive periods in visual development.

Q: When a 1-month-old kitten is put in the dark and kept there during the fourth week of life and beyond, damage to visual centers of the brain is severe and permanent. This example provides evidence of A)brain plasticity. B)synaptic pruning. C)lateralization of the cerebral cortex. D)sensitive periods in brain development.

Q: Sharon's 46-year-old husband suffered a traumatic brain injury in an automobile accident. What information about brain plasticity can you provide to Sharon? A)Brain plasticity is restricted to early childhood, when the brain is forming many new synapses. B)At older ages, specialized brain structures are in place, and after injury they cannot reorganize. C)Adults with brain injuries rarely show deficits in spatial skills, even if language development is impaired. D)Though far more limited than in early childhood, reorganization in the brain can occur in adulthood.

Q: In a large study of children with injuries to the cerebral cortex that occurred around the time of birth or in the first six months of life, researchers found that A)delays in language development persisted into adolescence if injury occurred in the left hemisphere. B)delays in language development persisted into adolescence if injury occurred in the right hemisphere. C)undamaged areas-in either the left or the right hemisphere-took over vocabulary and grammatical skills by age 5. D)language skills were more likely to be permanently damaged than spatial skills.

Q: Newborn Will is likely to show greater activation in the left hemisphere while A)displaying a positive state of arousal. B)listening to nonspeech sounds. C)drinking a sour-tasting fluid. D)feeling distress.

Q: In a highly plastic cerebral cortex, A)the areas of the brain are strongly committed to specific functions, and there is a high capacity for learning. B)if a part of the cortex is damaged, other parts can take over the tasks it would have handled. C)spatial skills develop more rapidly than language skills and are easier to recover after injury. D)the right and left hemispheres of the brain have become strongly lateralized.

Q: Studies using fMRI reveal that the right hemisphere is specialized for processing information in a(n) __________ manner. A)sequential B)analytical C)piece-by-piece D)holistic, integrative

Q: For most people, the left hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is largely responsible for A)judging distances. B)negative emotion. C)verbal abilities. D)recognizing geometric shapes.

Q: The prefrontal cortex A)reaches an adult level of synaptic connections during the first two months of life. B)undergoes especially rapid pruning of synapses during the preschool and school years. C)is responsible for body movement over the first year of life. D)fully develops before any of the other cortical regions.

Q: The cortical regions with the most extended period of development are the __________ lobes. A)occipital B)frontal C)temporal D)parietal

Q: The cerebral cortex A)contains the greatest number of neurons and synapses in the brain. B)is the first part of the brain to stop growing. C)is less sensitive to environmental influences than other parts of the brain. D)fully develops during the third trimester of pregnancy.

Q: Near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS) A)enables identification of general regions of stimulus-induced activity. B)detects changes in electrical brain-wave activity in the cerebral cortex. C)is appropriate for infants and young children, who can move within limited range during testing. D)records the frequency and amplitude of brain waves in response to particular stimuli using the EEG.

Q: Damon is injected with a radioactive substance and then lies on an apparatus with a scanner that emits fine streams of X-rays, which detect increased blood flow and oxygen metabolism in areas of the brain as Damon processes particular stimuli. Damon's brain functioning is being measured using A)an electroencephalogram (EEG). B)event-related potentials (ERPs). C)functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). D)position emission tomography (PET).