Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Psychology
Q:
Give an example of concept formation that clearly delineates the key features of the process by which concepts are formed.
Q:
Explain the stimulus discrimination training process. Provide a novel concrete example of discrimination training.
Q:
Explain two ways in which motivating operations and discriminative stimuli are similar. Then explain how they are different.
Q:
Transfer of stimulus control from prompts to naturally occurring stimuli is accomplished through stimulus equivalence training.
Q:
If a student lacks attending skill, this will make it more difficult for stimulus control to develop for the student.
Q:
Reflexivity occurs when one matches a novel picture of an object to an identical picture of an object when it is presented in an array of other objects.
Q:
The more similar two stimuli are, the more likely stimulus generalization will occur.
Q:
Stimulus generalization is always a desired long-term goal of any behavioral intervention.
Q:
Stimulus generalization and stimulus discrimination are opposites.
Q:
Operant and respondent stimulus control are identical.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of stimulus fading?
A. Taking a line drawing of a bed and slowly changing it into the letters b-e-d to help a child learn to read the word bed.
B. Most-to-least prompting.
C. Printing a childs name on a piece of paper and having him trace his name. Over time, slowly remove one letter of his name, thus requiring him to trace the first letters but to print the last letters himself.
D. All of these are examples of stimulus fading.
Q:
Which of the following is a stimulus prompt?
A. Mary is trying to do laundry, but has forgotten the next step. Ashley says to Mary, Remember, next you need to put the soap in the washing machine.
B. Mary puts the soap in the machine but does not begin putting the clothes in the washing machine. Ashley picks up an article of clothing and puts in the washer, saying Do this next.
C. After putting the clothes in the washer, Mary attempts to close the lid to the washer. Due to her limited vision, she keeps missing the lid when she reaches for it. Ashley physically guides her hand to the washer lid and puts her hand on the lid.
D. After closing the lid, Mary turns the dial to the correct cycle. Prior to the training session, Ashley painted a red arrow to the correct setting to help Mary remember where to set the dial. Mary successful sets the dial to the correct setting without any additional assistance.
Q:
Which of the following constitutes a prompt?
A. Physically helping an individual perform a task.
B. Providing a reinforcer to an individual for completing a step of a task.
C. Praising an individual for his/her performance.
D. All of the above.
Q:
Stimulus salience:
A. Can affect the development of stimulus control.
B. Refers to the prominence of the stimulus in the persons environment.
C. Can depend on the sensory capabilities of the learner.
D. All of the above.
Q:
The critical test for stimulus equivalence is:
A. Reflexivity
B. Symmetry
C. Transitivity
D. Commonality
Q:
Stimulus equivalence:
A. Means that two stimuli share a number of common features.
B. Is important to the development of stimulus discrimination.
C. Means that a person responds accurately to untrained and nonreinforced stimulus-stimulus relations following training on different stimulus-stimulus relations.
D. Requires testing of reflexivity, symmetry, and commonality.
Q:
Stimuli in an arbitrary stimulus class:
A. Share common physical forms or relations to the target stimulus.
B. Do not share similar stimulus features.
C. Include an infinite number of stimuli.
D. Comprise a large portion of our conceptual behavior.
Q:
Which of the following would be included in the feature stimulus class for ducks:
A. All animals.
B. Webbed feet.
C. All birds.
D. Beaks.
Q:
Concept formation:
A. Requires both stimulus discrimination across different classes and stimulus generalization within a class.
B. Requires both stimulus discrimination within a class and stimulus generalization across classes.
C. Is a simple process that involves strict stimulus discrimination and training to avoid any stimulus generalzation.
D. Is a hypothetical mental construct.
Q:
Stimulus generalization has occurred when:
A. A response occurs more frequently in the presence of a specific stimulus, but rarely occurs in the absence of the stimulus.
B. The same response occurs in the presence of two different, but similar, stimuli.
C. One response occurs in the presence of a specific stimulus, and a different response occurs in the presence of a different stimulus.
D. One stimulus evokes a number of different, but similar, responses.
Q:
Operant stimulus control has been achieved when:
A. A response occurs frequently throughout the day under a variety of stimulus conditions.
B. A response occurs in the presence of a conditioned stimulus.
C. A response occurs more frequently in the presence of a specific stimulus, but rarely occurs in the absence of the stimulus.
D. A response occurs more frequently in the absence of a specific stimulus, but rarely occurs in its presence.
Q:
A stimulus delta is:
A. A stimulus in the presence of which a response will be reinforced.
B. A stimulus in the presence of which a response will not be reinforced.
C. A stimulus in the presence of which a response will be placed on extinction.
D. A stimulus that cues respondent behaviors to occur.
Q:
A discriminative stimulus is:
A. A stimulus in the presence of which a response will be reinforced.
B. A stimulus in the presence of which a response will not be reinforced.
C. A stimulus in the presence of which a response will be placed on extinction.
D. A stimulus that cues respondent behaviors to occur.
Q:
Discuss the antecedent variables SD and MO. Provide a concrete example to illustrate the arguments you make.
Q:
State and discuss one example of an unconditioned motivating operation (UMO) as it relates to a human organism.
Q:
Compare and contrast the different types of conditioned motivating operations (CMOs).
Q:
Define and discuss the similarities and differences between unconditioned motivating operations (UMOs) and conditioned motivating operations (CMOs).
Q:
Name and briefly discuss the two types of effects that accompany the term motivating operation (MO).
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. All conditioned motivating operations (CMOs) are motivationally neutral prior to their relation with another MO or to a form of reinforcement or punishment.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Behavior-altering effects refer only to the frequency of a behavior.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. An abolishing operation has behavior-altering effect in which a decrease in the reinforcing effectiveness of some stimulus, object, or event occurs.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Value-altering and behavior-altering effects described the defining effects in the original definition of establishing operation (EO).
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Antecedent variables include only SDs.
Q:
Conditioned motivating operations (CMOs) can be classified as:
A. Positive & Negative
B. Reflexive, Surrogate & Transitive
C. Reflexive & Trasitive
D. Transitive, Relective, & Substantive
Q:
Unconditioned motivating operations (UMOs) have:
A. Value-altering motivating effects that are unlearned
B. Behavior-altering motivating effects that are a function of a learning history
C. Behavior-altering effects that are unlearned
D. Value-altering motivating effects that are a function of a learning history
Q:
Conditioned motivating operations (CMOs) have:
A. Value-altering motivating effects that are unlearned
B. Behavior-altering motivating effects that are a function of a learning history
C. Behavior-altering effects that are unlearned
D. Value-altering motivating effects that are a function of a learning history
Q:
Motivating operations:
A. Will evoke the target behavior every single time
B. May never evoke the target behavior
C. Should evoke the target behavior, but may not consistently do so
D. Evoke the target behavior even if not first successful at doing so
Q:
Dimensions of value altering effects are:
A. Limited to frequency
B. Includes frequency, magnitude, & latency
C. Includes frequency & magnitude but not latency
D. Includes frequency & latency but not magnitude
Q:
Behavior altering effects have:
A. Direct effects
B. Conditioned effects
C. Direct and indirect effects
D. Indirect effects
Q:
An abative effect refers to:
A. A decrease in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
B. An increase in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
C. No effect in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
D. A combination of decreasing and increasing effects in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
Q:
An evocative effect refers to:
A. A decrease in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
B. An increase in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
C. No effect in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
D. A combination of decreasing and increasing effects in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event
Q:
The term motivating operation has been suggested to replace the term establishing operation with the addition of the term(s):
A. Value-altering
B. Unconditioned
C. Conditioned
D. Behavior-altering
E. Both A & D
F. Both B & C
Q:
Timmy is a bright student who is the class clown. He often blurts out answers before getting permission to respond. In addition, he makes off color jokes to get other students to laugh? Pick a procedure to use to decrease his talk outs and jokes and describe how you would implement the procedure.
Q:
Why is it important to enrich the time-in setting?
Q:
What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a time-out room?
Q:
Why might planned ignoring be difficult to implement successfully?
Q:
Why is nonexclusion time-out recommended the method of first choice when implementing time-out?
Q:
____ Loss of a particular stimulus.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
______ Removal from the classroom but within range to hear instrcution.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
______ Punishment by contingent removal of a stimulus.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
______ Losing access to positive reinforcement and watching other earn rewards.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
_____ A necessary component of the fair pair rule.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
______ A procedure that involves obstruction the view of the individual in time-out.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
______ Reinforcers that can be lost during a response cost procedure.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
_____ One of the steps to complete before beginning a time-out procedure.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
_____ When the behavior of any individual results in time-out for all.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
_____ An unwanted side effect that can occur with the use of punishment.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer that best completes the following statements.
A. Bonus Response cost F. Withdrawal of a specific reinforcer
B. Contingent observation G. Group time-out
C. Increased aggression H. Reinforcing alternative behaviors
D. Obtaining permission I. Partition time-out
E. Type II punishment J. Hallway time-out
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Wearing the time-out ribbon signals that the individual is in time-out.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Planned ignoring involves the removal of social reinforcers.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Removing a student from the instructional setting contingent on emission of a target behavior is an example of nonexclusion time-out.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. If time-out does not result in a decreased probability of the target behavior occurring it is still considered punishment.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. The greater the reinforcing value of the time-in setting, the more effective time-out will be.
Q:
Making additional reinforcers available noncontingently that are available for removal during a response cost procedure is known as?
A. Priming the pump.
B. A direct fine.
C. A combined approach.
D. Negative reinforcement.
E. Bonus response cost.
Q:
When an individual returns from a time-out the first thing a practitioner should do is:
A. Reinforce an appropriate behavior.
B. Discuss why the individual was placed in time-out.
C. Move the individual in closer proximity to the practitioner.
D. Decrease the demands placed on the individual.
E. Go over the rules for appropriate behavior with the individual.
Q:
All of the following are desirable aspects of time-out except?
A. Ease of application.
B. Acceptability.
C. Collateral decreases in non-targeted behaviors.
D. Rapid suppression of behavior.
E. Can be combined with other approaches.
Q:
The disadvantages of using a time-out room can include
A. Social isolation.
B. Lost instructional time.
C. Public perception.
D. The room is highly disciminable.
E. All of the above.
F. B and C.
Q:
The time-out room should be:
A. Devoid of any potential reinforcers.
B. Located as far away from the instructional setting as possible.
C. Locked at all times when a student is there.
D. Free of tables and chairs.
E. All of the above
Q:
Contingent observation involves:
A. The individual being removed from the instructional setting for a period of time.
B. The individual remaining in the setting but losing participation privileges for a period of time.
C. The practitioner closely observing the individual for instances of the target behavior.
D. Assessing the problem behavior during instructional activities.
Q:
In order for withdraw of a specific reinforcer to be successful:
A. The item removed must be a reinforcer.
B. The procedure must be applied to an entire group.
C. The student must be able to regain access to the item at a later time.
D. The practitioner must be able to control access to the item.
E. A and C.
Q:
The key difference between noncexclusion and exclusion time-out is:
E. With nonexcluion time-out the individual is not totally removed from the instructional environment.
F. There are no differences, they both result in the same effect on behavior.
G. With exclusion time-out the individual is at least partially removed from the instructional environment.
H. A and C.
Q:
The key behavioral effect of punishment by contingent removal of a stimulus is:
E. An increased frequency, duration, or intensity of non-problematic behaviors.
F. Increased compliance by the individual.
G. Collateral improvement in academic skills.
H. A decreased frequency, duration, or intensity of behaviors targeted for punishment.
I. All of the above.
J. A,B,D.
K. B,C,D.
Q:
Punishment by contingent removal of a stimulus is also known as:
E. Negative reinforcement.
F. Negative punishment.
G. Type II punishment.
H. Positive punishment.
I. All of the above.
J. A,B,C only.
K. B and C only.
Q:
Describe some of the ethical concerns revolving around the use of punishment as an intervention. (Include a minimum of three)
Q:
Detail the similarities and differences between positive practice and restitutional overcorrection.
Q:
Explain the importance of using a functional analysis to identify the function of a problem behavior and how it relates to the identification and strengthening of an alternative response.
Q:
Why does the field of applied behavior analysis adhere to the consideration of procedural guidelines when using a punishment intervention?
Q:
What are some of the potential side effects of using punishment as a treatment intervention? (Include at least three)
Q:
_____ Right to a safe and humane treatment, professional responsibility to adhere to the doctrine of the least restrictive alternative, and clients right to effective treatment.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer(s) for each of the following statements. Answers may be used once, several times, or not at all.
A. Side effects of punishment
B. Procedural guideline for the use of punishment
C. Factor that influences the effectiveness of punishment.
D. Positive punishment
E. Ethical guideline for the use of punishment
F. Behavioral contrast
Q:
_____ Conducting a punisher assessment.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer(s) for each of the following statements. Answers may be used once, several times, or not at all.
A. Side effects of punishment
B. Procedural guideline for the use of punishment
C. Factor that influences the effectiveness of punishment.
D. Positive punishment
E. Ethical guideline for the use of punishment
F. Behavioral contrast
Q:
_____ Delivery of a stimulus after a behavior occurs that decreases the future rate of frequency of that behavior.
Matching
Choose the corresponding answer(s) for each of the following statements. Answers may be used once, several times, or not at all.
A. Side effects of punishment
B. Procedural guideline for the use of punishment
C. Factor that influences the effectiveness of punishment.
D. Positive punishment
E. Ethical guideline for the use of punishment
F. Behavioral contrast