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Psychology
Q:
Stress management may help the release of appropriate levels of:
a. dopamine.
b. serotonin.
c. acetylcholine.
d. GABA.
Q:
Ivey suggests that the positive asset search, wellness, and search for strengths will increase release of:
a. dopamine.
b. serotonin.
c. acetylcholine.
d. GABA.
Q:
Alzheimer's clients may be deficit in:
a. dopamine.
b. serotonin.
c. acetylcholine.
d. GABA.
Q:
The neurotransmitter anandamide is important for us to know when we work with:
a. depression.
b. abusing males.
c. drug and alcohol clients.
d. stress management.
Q:
Which of the following is a neurotransmitter that produces positive feelings of well being and energy?
a. Glutamate
b. GABA
c. Serotonin
d. Pituitary hormone
Q:
Current neuroscience research demonstrates that:
a. meditation and exercise prevent the brain from forming long-term memory.
b. positive thinking reduces brain's capacity to deal with stress effectively.
c. abuse, neglect, and deprivation produce long-term damage to children's brains.
d. all of the above.
Q:
Which of the following works to regulate hormones in the brain and body?
a. Hypothalmus
b. Amygdala
c. Pituitary
d. Hippocampus
Q:
Which of the following is the switching station for messages in the brain?
a. Hypothalmus
b. Amygdala
c. Pituitary
d. Hippocampus
Q:
Which of the following is the memory organ?
a. Hypothalmus
b. Amygdala
c. Pituitary
d. Hippocampus
Q:
Which of the following is the center of mainly negative emotions and energizes memory?
a. Hypothalmus
b. Amygdala
c. Pituitary
d. Hippocampus
Q:
Which of the following is the center for auditory processing?
a. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Temporal lobe
Q:
Which of the following is the center for visual processing?
a. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Temporal lobe
Q:
Which of the following is the center for spatial sense and links to motor abilities?
a. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Temporal lobe
Q:
Which of the following is the center for executive functioning, abstract reasoning, attentional processes?
a. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Temporal lobe
Q:
Neuropsychology can be defined as:
a. the study of relations between brain function and behavior.
b. the study of elasticity of the brain measurable with MRI.
c. both of these definitions.
d. neither of these definitions.
Q:
Dr. Brinkley, demonstrating cognitive-behavioral counseling emphasizes that:
a. exercise can be a generally beneficial treatment for all clients.
b. meditation is clearly the best stress reducer.
c. through concentration, we can improve neural connections.
d. automatic thoughts can improve emotional satisfaction.
Q:
Effective decisions can be reached through ____.
a. cognitive processes located primarily in the executive left brain
b. a combination of cognitive decisions with emotional satisfaction
c. left and right brain coordination
d. the hippocampus energized by the amygdala
Q:
Building on wellness and positive emotions, according to Damasio, _______________.
a. leads us to develop strengths whereby we can deal with stressors more effectively in the future
b. is the best way to build a defensive structure in our neural connections
c. is not enough; we need to add effective counseling and therapy for our clients
d. is hoping for too much
Q:
Reflection of meaning and exploration would likely lead to:
a. an increased awareness of the importance of meditation.
b. the development of new neural connections in the brain.
c. increase in neurons and neural connections in the specific place in the brain where we find morality and spirituality.
d. none of the above.
Q:
A number of regions of the ________ are activated attentional task preparation and execution.
a. prefrontal cortex
b. right intuitive brain
c. limbic system
d. limbic system and the right intuitive brain
Q:
The focusing skill is closely related to:
a. the hippocampus.
b. the energizing amygdala.
c. selective attention.
d. non-verbal behavior.
Q:
The authors state that some authorities believe creativity :
a. is located in the prefrontal cortex
b. is the combination of the prefrontal cortex and the hippocampus.
c. is coordination of the left and right brain as well as the limbic system.
d. is coordination of the thalamus, hippocampus, frontal cortex, left brain, and the energizing amygdala.
Q:
Stress is_______________________.
a. always bad and must be prevented at all costs
b. challenging, but a strong amygdala and hippocampus can overcome stress
c. a way to motivate students who are not anxious to learn
d. in appropriate amounts, necessary for learning
Q:
Uncontrollable conflict and discrepancy bring stress to the client resulting in ____.
a. active inhibition of neurons and damaging glucocorticoids and cortisol are released
b. gradual strengthening of an individual through development of protective neural structures
c. an ultimate challenge to the counselor
d. the need to refer the client to the emergency room for medication
Q:
Crespi studied teenagers on death row and found:
a. that their mirror neuron were not working effectively.
b. that their mirror neurons were hyper and providing too much data to the teen.
c. that the teens had a long history of not caring for others.
d. had experienced multiple traumas in their lives.
Q:
What factors should you consider when trying to determine whether a proposed intervention is likely to be successful? Name at least 4.
Q:
What are at least 2 questions you should ask yourself to identify whether or not you treat clients with dignity?
Q:
When informing an individual about a proposed treatment, what are the salient aspects of treatment that should be shared with that person?
Q:
Explain the factors that go into making a determination as to whether an individual has the capacity to make an informed decision.
Q:
Name and explain at least 4 ways an individual can maintain and expand professional competence.
Q:
Explain what it means to be self-regulating in relation to ethics. What does one need to do to be self-regulating?
Q:
Behavior analysts are especially at risk for conflicts of interest because they frequently provide treatment in individuals homes and because they visit clients and families frequently.
Q:
There are some occasions where it is appropriate to proceed with treatment in the absence of consent.
Q:
It is acceptable to state that you have a license that you do not possess if you feel it will make you more credible with a family or client with whom you are working.
Q:
Major violations of professional codes of conduct typically result in being frowned on by an organization but rarely result in expulsion from the organization or revocation of licenses.
Q:
Good behavior analysts follow the Golden Rule.
Q:
Some practices may be legal but unethical.
Q:
Ethics is a fluid concept in that what is right and wrong changes over time according to cultural shifts.
Q:
On what two sources should behavior analysts base their practices? (Mark 2)
A. Peer-reviewed reports in reputable journals
B. Direct and frequent measures of behavior
C. Personal accounts of successful interventions presented at non-scientific conferences
D. Television infomercials (e.g., Hooked on Phonics)
Q:
Dave received a referral for behavioral treatment of an individuals self-injurious behavior. The individual has profound mental disabilities and is nonverbal. The staff who works with the client stated that the behavior emerged rather suddenly about a month ago, and has been getting increasingly worse. The staff havent attempted any systematic intervention for the behavior yet because theyve been taken by such surprise by it. What should Dave do?
A. Proceed directly to behavioral intervention without obtaining consent because the behavior is self-injurious.
B. Investigate whether the problem might have a medical cause by determining if a medical evaluation has been done recently.
C. Refer the individual to another therapist for talk therapy, since it is wise to attempt solving the problem through other disciplines first.
D. Implement a punishment procedure to immediately suppress the self-injurious behavior. It is unlikely that reinforcement-based interventions will be successful.
Q:
When an individual is deemed as incapacitated and cannot provide informed consent (mark all that apply):
A. One may proceed with assessment or intervention without obtaining consent.
B. Consent may be obtained from a surrogate or guardian.
C. Consent may be obtained from staff with whom the individual works.
D. The courts may appoint someone who can provide consent.
Q:
Informed consent requires (mark all that apply):
A. Explicit permission before any assessment or treatment begins.
B. Full disclosure of the assessment and treatment procedures.
C. That the person has the capacity to decide.
D. Voluntary consent.
Q:
Which of the following people is practicing within his/her area of competence?
E. Jos was trained as a behavior analyst at his local university. His training consisted primarily of working with children with autism. He is currently practicing behavior analysis in an adult facility for adults with mental retardation.
F. Sally was trained as a behavior analyst working in organizational behavior management. Recently, she was offered and accepted a job as a behavior consultant in a local school district.
G. Shu Lin was trained in experimental analysis of behavior. She examined canabanoids and how they interact with prenatal food restriction to affect choice making responding amongst different food alternatives. She was recently asked to consult on the food refusal behavior of a young child at risk for failure to thrive.
H. Rahul earned his doctorate in special education and is a Board Certified Behavior Analyst. His doctoral studies focused on the assessment and treatment of severe problem behavior. He has worked with children and adults, ages 3 to 35 years. He was recently hired to serve as a behavior specialist in his local school district.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a right to effective behavioral treatment, as outlined by the Association for Behavior Analysis in 1989?
A. The right to a therapeutic environment
B. The right to treatment by a competent behavior analyst
C. The right to the most effective treatment procedures available
D. The right to treatments based on positive reinforcement
Q:
Professional standards are:
A. Written guidelines and rules that give direction for conducting practice
B. Provided by local boards
C. Equivalent to position statements
D. All of the above
Q:
Sometimes, a client is engaging in such significant problem behavior that the practitioner may feel the need to act quickly and implement an intervention that will result in rapid reductions of problem behavior. This may be acceptable in some situations, but one must guard against compromising full consideration of the long-term ramifications of that decision for expediency. In other words, the practitioner must guard against adopting:
A. Lapses in judgment
B. Being swayed by others too much
C. Situational ethics
D. Over-cautiousness
Q:
When considering what is worth doing, as far as an intervention is concerned, what is/are some important point(s) to consider?
A. Whether the goals of intervention are closely aligned to staff goals.
B. Whether the costs of implementing the intervention are balanced by the potential benefits to the client.
C. Whether staff are motivated to do the intervention.
D. Whether you are being paid enough to do the job.
Q:
When teaching sufficient stimulus examples, the actual number of examples needed varies as a function of a number of factors. List and discuss three of these factors.
Q:
A number of suggestions for teaching loosely were made by Baer (1999). Name five of these recommendations for teaching loosely and provide a rationale as to why each suggestion may be pertinent to a learners performance of a target behavior(s).
Q:
List and discuss two potential advantages/benefits of programming common stimuli.
Q:
Name and discuss the importance of the three major types of generalized behavior change.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. The ripple effect and spillover effect refer to generalization across settings for an individual subject or participant.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. A general case analysis is a systematic method for selecting teaching examples that represent the full range of stimulus variations and response requirements in the generalization setting.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. CRF should only be utilized during initial acquisition of a skill for a learner.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. An indiscriminable is a contingency in which the learner can discriminate whether the next response will produce reinforcement.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. A naturally occurring contingency includes any contingency of reinforcement (or punishment) designed and implemented by a behavior analyst or practitioner to achieve acquisition, maintenance, and/or generalization of a targeted behavior change.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. A generalization map involves the combination generalized treatment effects of across time, across settings, across behaviors, and across subjects.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Changes in the behavior of people not directly treated by an intervention as a function of treatment contingencies applied to other people is known as generalization across subjects.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Contingency adduction is the emergence of accurate responding to untrained and nonreinforced stimulus-stimulus relations following the reinforcement of responses to some stimulus-stimulus relations.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Faulty stimulus control is when a target behavior comes under the restricted control of an irrelevant antecedent stimulus.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. The total environment where instruction occurs, including any aspects of the environment, planned or unplanned, that may influence the learners acquisition and generalization of the target behavior is referred to as the generalization setting.
Q:
John was taught by his teacher to say, Hello when greeting people. Now when he meets people he not only says hello, but also says: hi, good to see you and hey there. Johns behavior change is an example of:A. Setting/situation generalizationB. Response generalizationC. Setting/situation maintenanceD. Response maintenance
Q:
Generalization across subjects is also referred to as:A. Vicarious reinforcementB. Ripple effect C. Spillover effectD. All of the aboveE. None of the above
Q:
The success of using delayed rewards depends on:A. The indiscriminability of the contingency.B. The learner understanding the relation between emitting the target behavior at an earlier time and receiving a reward later.C. The person delivering the reward.D. A and B onlyE. A and C onlyF. All of the above
Q:
The general rule for teaching sufficient stimulus examples is:A. The less examples used during instruction, it is more likely the learner will respond correctly to untrained examples or situation.B. The more examples used during instruction, it is more likely the learner will respond correctly to untrained examples or situation.C. The more examples used during instruction, it is less likely the learner will respond correctly to untrained examples or situation.D. The less examples used during instruction, it is less likely the learner will respond correctly to untrained examples or situation.
Q:
Making the instructional setting similar to the generalization setting involves:A. Teaching self-management skillsB. Teaching looselyC. Programming common stimuliD. B & C onlyE. A & C onlyF. All of the above
Q:
One strategy for promoting generalized behavior change is to teach the full range of relevant stimulus conditions and response requirements. In doing this, a practitioner may:A. Teach sufficient stimulus examplesB. Teach sufficient response examplesC. Utilize general case analysisD. Use negative teaching examplesE. All of the aboveF. None of the above
Q:
This is a process by which a behavior that was initially selected and shaped under one set of conditions is recruited by a different set of contingencies and takes on a new function in a persons repertoire.A. Contingency adductionB. Stimulus equivalenceC. Faulty stimulus controlD. Overgeneralization
Q:
This is the extent to which a learner emits untrained responses that are functionally equivalent to the trained target behavior.A. Setting/situation maintenanceB. Response generalizationC. Setting/situation generalizationD. Response maintenance
Q:
This is the extent to which a learner continues to perform the target behavior after a portion or all of the intervention responsible for the behaviors initial appearance in the learners repertoire has been terminated.A. Setting/situation maintenanceB. Response generalizationC. Setting/situation generalizationD. Response maintenance
Q:
This is the extent to which a learner emits the target behavior in a setting or stimulus situation that is different from the instructional setting.A. Setting/situation maintenanceB. Response generalizationC. Setting/situation generalizationD. Response maintenance
Q:
State and discuss/illustrate three guidelines for promoting the success and effectiveness of self-monitoring.
Q:
List and briefly discuss (e.g. a rationale) recommended steps for conducting an effective self-management program.
Q:
What is the difference between self-monitoring and self-monitoring with self-evaluation?
Q:
State and discuss/illustrate two antecedent-based self-management tactics.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Self-evaluation involves the comparison of a persons performance by himself/herself with goals or standards of other individuals.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Self-monitoring is a tactic that was originally conceived as a method of instructional assessment.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Manipulating motivating operations involves behaving in a way that creates a certain state of motivation that, in turn increases (or decreases as desired) the subsequent frequency of the target behavior.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. Antecedent-based self-management tactics involve the manipulation of events of stimuli antecedent to the target behavior.
Q:
TRUE or FALSE. The term self-control can and should be used interchangeably with the term self-management because the two are synonymous.