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Q:
Between the seventh and ninth days, during the period of the zygote,A) the one-celled zygote multiplies and forms a blastocyst.B) fertilization occurs.C) the face forms.D) implantation occurs.
Q:
During the period of the zygote, the __________ becomes the new organism, and the __________ becomes the structures that provide protective covering and nourishment.
A) embryonic disk; trophoblast
B) trophoblast; amnion
C) yolk sac; chorion
D) embryonic disc; villi
Q:
Sperm live for up to _____ days and can lie in wait for the ovum, which survives for _____ day(s).
A) 2; 1
B) 4; 2
C) 6; 1
D) 8; 2
Q:
The male produces an average of __________ sperm each day.
A) 300
B) 300,000
C) 3 million
D) 300 million
Q:
While the ovum is traveling, the __________ secrete(s) hormones that prepare the lining of the uterus to receive a fertilized ovum.
A) fallopian tubes
B) corpus luteum
C) cervix
D) blastocyst
Q:
One concern about surrogate motherhood is that itA) poses a greater risk than natural conception to infant survival and healthy development.B) may promote exploitation of financially needy women.C) is a dangerous step toward selective breeding.D) is too heavily regulated.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about donor insemination and in vitro fertilization?
A) In vitro infants are less securely attached to their parents than naturally conceived infants.
B) Sperm donors are always screened for genetic or sexually transmitted diseases.
C) In vitro babies are at no greater risk for birth defects than naturally conceived infants.
D) There is a higher rate of low birth weight among in vitro babies than naturally conceived infants.
Q:
Usually, __________ is used to treat women whose fallopian tubes are permanently damaged.
A) in vitro fertilization
B) donor insemination
C) surrogacy
D) chorionic villus sampling
Q:
Donor insemination
A) is often used to overcome female reproductive difficulties.
B) is 70 to 80 percent successful.
C) is sharply restricted in 11 states and the District of Columbia.
D) results in multiple births about 50 percent of the time.
Q:
Using __________, researchers hope to correct genetic abnormalities by delivering DNA carrying a functional gene to the cells.
A) gene therapy
B) proteomics
C) ultrafast MRI
D) ultrasound
Q:
In __________, a hollow needle is inserted through the abdominal wall to obtain a sample of fluid in the uterus during the 14th week after conception or later.A) fetoscopyB) amniocentesisC) ultrafast MRID) preimplantation genetic diagnosis
Q:
Women of advanced maternal age are primary candidates for
A) fetoscopy.
B) ultrafast MRI.
C) preimplantation genetic diagnosis.
D) chorionic villus sampling.
Q:
Individuals who know that genetic problems exist in their families are good candidates for __________ before deciding to conceive.
A) gene therapy
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) genetic counseling
D) amniocentesis
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about individuals with sex chromosome disorders?
A) Males with XYY syndrome are more aggressive and antisocial than XY males.
B) Verbal difficulties are common among girls with triple X syndrome.
C) Most children with sex chromosome disorders suffer from mental retardation.
D) Girls with Turner syndrome have trouble with reading and vocabulary.
Q:
Harley was born with Klinefelter syndrome. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Harley is missing an X chromosome.
B) Harley has an extra Y chromosome.
C) Harley will probably need hormone therapy at puberty to stimulate development of sex characteristics.
D) Harley will probably need special education to treat spatial ability problems.
Q:
The risk of bearing a baby with Down syndrome rises dramatically withA) paternal age.B) maternal age.C) maternal smoking.D) paternal radiation exposure.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about individuals with Down syndrome?
A) Most die before the age of 40 and have eye cataracts and hearing loss.
B) Many have enlarged brains, especially in the cerebral cortex region.
C) More than half who live past age 40 show symptoms of Alzheimer's disease.
D) Affected individuals have few common physical features.
Q:
Down syndrome is most commonly caused by
A) advanced maternal or paternal age.
B) an error that occurs in the early stages of mitosis, called mosaic pattern.
C) mutation of the genetic material on the twenty-third chromosome pair.
D) failure of the twenty-first pair of chromosomes to separate during meiosis.
Q:
Characteristics that vary on a continuum among people, such as height, weight, intelligence, and personality, are due to
A) dominant"recessive relationships.
B) polygenic inheritance.
C) incomplete dominance.
D) genomic imprinting.
Q:
On the job, Mr. Williams was exposed to high doses of radiation. Because of this exposure, when planning their family, the Williams' should be concerned about
A) germline mutation.
B) somatic mutation.
C) polygenic inheritance.
D) chromosomal abnormalities.
Q:
__________ reveals that genomic imprinting can operate on the sex chromosomes.A) Cooley's anemiaB) Marfan syndromeC) HomosexualityD) Fragile X syndrome
Q:
The fact that children are more likely to develop diabetes if their father, rather than their mother, suffers from it is best explained by
A) genomic imprinting.
B) genetic mutation.
C) X-linked inheritance.
D) polygenic inheritance.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about sex differences?
A) More girls than boys are born with birth defects.
B) More boys than girls are born mentally retarded.
C) More girls than boys have learning disabilities.
D) Fewer boys than girls die in infancy and childhood.
Q:
Victoria carries the abnormal allele for hemophilia. Which of the following children is most likely to inherit the disorder?
A) her oldest daughter, Maryanne
B) her second daughter, Alice
C) her oldest son, Albert
D) her youngest daughter, Beatrice
Q:
__________ is an example of incomplete dominance.
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Cooley's anemia
C) Marfan syndrome
D) PKU
Q:
All U.S. states require that each newborn be given a blood test forA) Tay-Sachs disease.B) hemophilia.C) PKU.D) cystic fibrosis.
Q:
One example of a dominant disorder is
A) sickle cell anemia.
B) diabetes insipidus.
C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
D) Huntington disease.
Q:
Amelia was born to parents of Mediterranean descent. In infancy, Amelia appeared pale, had slowed physical growth, and was lethargic. Amelia's parents should have her tested for
A) Cooley's anemia.
B) Huntington disease.
C) Marfan syndrome.
D) Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
Q:
One of the most frequently occurring recessive disorder is
A) phenylketonuria (PKU).
B) Down syndrome.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) Tay-Sachs disease.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a recessive characteristic?
A) facial dimples
B) pattern baldness
C) farsightedness
D) double-jointedness
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a dominant characteristic?A) red hairB) nearsightednessC) curly hairD) Type O blood
Q:
Blond hair can result only from havingA) two dominant alleles.B) two recessive alleles.C) a dominant dark hair allele and a recessive blond hair allele.D) a dominant blond hair allele and a recessive dark hair allele.
Q:
If the alleles from both parents are alike,
A) the child is heterozygous.
B) the child will not display the inherited trait.
C) dominant"recessive inheritance occurs.
D) the child is homozygous.
Q:
Fraternal twins account for 1 in every _____ births in the United States.
A) 60
B) 100
C) 330
D) 500
Q:
Fraternal twinning
A) occurs more often in Asian than Caucasian births.
B) occurs more often among women whose mothers and sisters gave birth to fraternal twins.
C) occurs less often among women who are overweight than among those with a slight body build.
D) is less likely with each additional birth.
Q:
Fred and George are identical twins. Ashton and Michael are fraternal twins. Which of the following statements is true?A) Ashton and Michael have the same genetic makeup.B) Fred and George have the same genetic makeup.C) Ashton and Michael are more genetically similar than Fred and George.D) Fred and George are genetically no more alike than ordinary siblings.
Q:
Dizygotic twins __________ monozygotic twins.
A) are more common than
B) are more genetically similar than
C) are as genetically similar as
D) look more alike than
Q:
A zygote that separates into two clusters of cells produces
A) a child with Down syndrome.
B) fraternal twins.
C) identical twins.
D) a child with triple X syndrome.
Q:
The sex of a new organism is determined by
A) the genes on the X chromosome.
B) whether the ovum is carrying an X chromosome or a Y chromosome.
C) whether the sperm fertilizes an X-bearing or a Y-bearing ovum.
D) whether an X-bearing or a Y-bearing sperm fertilizes the ovum.
Q:
__________ matching pair(s) of chromosomes is/are called autosomes.
A) One
B) Two
C) Four
D) Twenty-two
Q:
In __________, __________ is/are produced when meiosis is complete.A) males; one spermB) females; four eggsC) males; four spermD) females; 1 to 2 million eggs
Q:
Gametes are
A) the result of the uniting of the sperm and the ovum at fertilization.
B) formed through a cell division process called meiosis.
C) created with twice the usual number of chromosomes.
D) formed through a cell division process called mitosis.
Q:
__________ are sex cells that contain __________ chromosomes each.
A) Gametes; 23
B) Gametes; 23 pairs of
C) Zygotes; 46
D) Autosomes; 23 pairs of
Q:
__________ are the biological foundation on which our characteristics are built.
A) Phenotypes
B) Chromosomes
C) Proteins
D) Genes
Q:
During mitosis,
A) a single cell develops into a complex, many-celled human being.
B) new body cells are created, each with its own unique DNA.
C) the number of chromosomes normally present in body cells is halved.
D) crossing over occurs.
Q:
Individuals around the world are about _____ percent genetically identical.A) 10B) 33.3C) 55D) 99.1
Q:
Deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA,
A) is a rodlike structure that stores and transmits genetic information.
B) comes in 23 matching pairs.
C) looks like a twisted ladder.
D) cannot duplicate itself.
Q:
Each person is made up of trillions of __________ and 23 __________.
A) genes; billion cells
B) cells; matching pairs of chromosomes
C) matching pairs of chromosomes; genes
D) cells; chromosomes
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about genotypes?
A) They are directly observable characteristics.
B) They always pair up in the same way across the DNA ladder rungs.
C) They are rodlike structures in the cell nucleus that transmit genetic information.
D) They are a complex blend of genetic information that influences all our unique characteristics.
Q:
Brothers, Patrick and Michael, do not look very much alike. Patrick has green eyes and blond, curly hair like his mother. Michael has blue eyes and dark brown, straight hair like his father. These directly observable characteristics are
A) phenotypes.
B) genotypes.
C) chromosomes.
D) DNA.
Q:
Which of the following is a major limitation of microgenetic research?
A) Selective attrition often distorts developmental trends.
B) Practice effects can distort microgenetic findings.
C) Microgenetic studies often create ethical issues.
D) Cohort effects often limit the generalizability of findings.
Q:
A microgenetic design is especially useful for
A) assessing emotional bonding among family members.
B) studying cognitive development.
C) measuring the impact of selective attrition and practice effects.
D) determining the cause of cohort effects.
Q:
In a microgenetic design,
A) participants are presented with a novel task, and researchers follow their mastery over a series of closely spaced sessions.
B) groups of people differing in age are studied at the same point in time.
C) researchers conduct several cross-sectional or longitudinal investigations..
D) participants are studied repeatedly at different ages, and changes are noted as they get older.
Q:
A sequential designA) does not allow inferences about individual differences.B) permits researchers to find out whether cohort effects are operating.C) is less efficient than a longitudinal design.D) does not have any of the same limitations as a longitudinal or cross-sectional design.
Q:
To examine age-related changes in memory strategy use, Professor Mnemonic presented 5-, 6-, and 7-year-olds various memory tasks several times over a 3-year period. This is an example of a __________ study.
A) longitudinal
B) cross-sectional
C) microgenetic
D) sequential
Q:
In a sequential design,
A) participants are presented with a novel task, and researchers follow their mastery over a series of closely spaced sessions.
B) groups of people differing in age are studied at the same point in time.
C) researchers conduct several cross-sectional or longitudinal investigations.
D) participants are studied repeatedly at different ages, and changes are noted as they get older.
Q:
Like longitudinal research, cross-sectional studies
A) can be threatened by cohort effects.
B) often rely on biased observation procedures.
C) can be threatened by selective attrition.
D) can be threatened by practice effects.
Q:
Despite its convenience, cross-sectional research
A) does not provide evidence about individual development.
B) cannot provide information about age-related trends.
C) is limited by selective attrition.
D) is threatened by practice effects.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about the cross-sectional design?A) Researchers are not concerned with cohort effects.B) Researchers are not concerned with selective attrition.C) It is rarely used because it is so time-consuming.D) Researchers are concerned with both practice and cohort effects.
Q:
The cross-sectional design is
A) rarely used in developmental research because data collection often takes years to complete.
B) often affected by selective attrition, practice effects, and changes in the field.
C) an efficient strategy for describing age-related trends.
D) an efficient strategy for studying individual differences in development.
Q:
In the cross-sectional design,
A) groups of people differing in age are studied at the same point in time.
B) participants are studied repeatedly at different ages, and changes are noted as they get older.
C) participants are presented with a novel task, and researchers follow their mastery over a series of closely spaced sessions.
D) the investigator conducts several sequences and makes cross-sectional comparisons.
Q:
Many recent longitudinal studies span only a few months or years to avoid problems associated with
A) cohort effects.
B) practice effects.
C) theories and methods becoming outdated.
D) biased sampling.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about cohort effects?
A) They cannot occur when specific experiences influence some children but not others in the same generation.
B) They do not just operate broadly on an entire generation.
C) They occur when participants move away or drop out of studies.
D) They occur because of factors commonly associated with development.
Q:
The most widely discussed threat to the validity of longitudinal findings isA) biased sampling.B) selective attrition.C) practice effects.D) cohort effects.
Q:
Maggie, a participant in a longitudinal study, became "test-wise" over time. Her performance on the test improved with increased familiarity with the measure. This is an example of
A) biased sampling.
B) selective attrition.
C) practice effects.
D) cohort effects.
Q:
Over time, John, a participant in a longitudinal study, became aware of his own thoughts, feelings, and actions, and consciously revised them when the investigator was present. This is an example of
A) cohort effects.
B) practice effects.
C) selective attrition.
D) biased sampling.
Q:
When participants in her longitudinal study on the effects of child care moved away or dropped out, Dr. Swan was probably concerned about
A) biased sampling.
B) selective attrition.
C) practice effects.
D) cohort effects.
Q:
__________ samples generally become more biased as the investigation proceeds because of __________.
A) Cross-sectional; practice effects
B) Microgenetic; cohort effects
C) Longitudinal; selective attrition
D) Cross-sectional; cohort effects
Q:
In Dr. Jeffers' study, he discovered that many of the participants had a special appreciation for the scientific value of research. Dr. Jeffers should be concerned withA) practice effects.B) selective attrition.C) cohort effects.D) biased sampling.
Q:
A major strength of the natural, or quasi-, experiment is that it permits
A) study of relationships between variables.
B) inferences about cause-and-effect relationships.
C) generalization of experimental findings to the real world.
D) study of many real-world conditions that cannot be experimentally manipulated.
Q:
Control over the treatment is generally weaker in a __________ experiment than in a __________ experiment.
A) field; natural, or quasi-,
B) laboratory; field
C) field; laboratory
D) laboratory; natural, or quasi-,
Q:
Which of the following is a strength of the longitudinal design?
A) It permits investigators to examine relationships between early and later events and behaviors.
B) It avoids problems of selective attrition, practice effects, and theoretical and methodological changes in the field.
C) It offers insight into how change occurs.
D) It permits cross-sectional comparisons and reveals cohort effects.
Q:
In a__________ design, researchers can identify common patterns as well as individual differences in development because it tracks the performance of each person over time.
A) cross-sectional
B) microgenetic
C) longitudinal
D) sequential
Q:
In a longitudinal design,A) groups of people differing in age are studied at the same point in time.B) participants are studied repeatedly at different ages, and changes are noted as they get older.C) participants are presented with a novel task and researchers follow their mastery over a series of closely spaced sessions.D) the investigator conducts several sequences and makes cross-sectional comparisons.
Q:
A field experiment comparing 36 weeks of piano and voice lessons with drama lessons and a no-lessons control showed that
A) sustained musical experiences can lead to small increases in intelligence that do not arise from comparable drama lessons.
B) sustained musical experiences can boost performance on spatial but not verbal abilities.
C) piano, but not voice, lessons can lead to gains in intelligence-test performance.
D) drama lessons can boost intelligence-test performance above and beyond the effects of music lessons.
Q:
Research suggests that to produce lasting gains in mental-test scores using music, interventions must
A) begin in infancy.
B) begin before birth.
C) be long-lasting and involve children's active participation.
D) occur during REM sleep.
Q:
Researchers reported that college students who listened to a Mozart sonata for a few minutes just before taking a test of spatial reasoning abilities did better on the test than students who took the test after listening to relaxation instructions or sitting in silence. The gain in performance, widely publicized as the "Mozart effect,"
A) was easy to replicate.
B) was small and short-lived.
C) involved a real change in ability.
D) was long-lasting.
Q:
Dr. MacKenzie wants to study the impact of child maltreatment on physical development. The best experimental method for this research would be a __________ experiment.
A) field
B) natural, or quasi-,
C) laboratory
D) correlational
Q:
__________ studies differ from correlational research only in that groups of participants are carefully chosen to ensure that their characteristics are as much alike as possible.A) Field experimentB) Natural, or quasi-, experimentC) Laboratory experimentD) Observational
Q:
Often researchers cannot randomly assign participants and manipulate conditions in the real world, so they compromise by conducting __________ experiments.
A) field
B) laboratory
C) natural, or quasi-,
D) correlational