Q&A Hero

Q: Explain the importance of folic acid supplements for women of childbearing age.

Q: Discuss teratogens. Why does the harm from teratogens vary, and what are some long-term consequences of exposure?

Q: Describe amniocentesis, and discuss its use as a prenatal diagnostic method.

Q: Describe incomplete dominance, and provide an example.

Q: Describe fraternal twinning, including maternal factors linked to fraternal twinning.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about maternal smoking and ADHD symptoms as viewed through the epigenetic framework?A) The majority of children prenatally exposed to nicotine are at high risk for learning and behavior problems.B) The DD genotype is present in only 10 percent of children prenatally exposed to nicotine.C) The DD genotype is present in only 10 percent of children with little or no prenatal nicotine exposure.D) There is no correlation between prenatal nicotine exposure and ADHD symptoms.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about the epigenetic interplay between maternal smoking and attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? A) By itself, the DD genotype was related to impulsivity and oppositional behavior. B) Children of mothers who smoked during pregnancy scored lower in overactivity than children of nonsmoking mothers. C) Five-year-olds with both prenatal nicotine exposure and the DD genotype obtained substantially higher impulsivity scores than all other groups. D) Five-year-olds with both prenatal nicotine exposure and the DD genotype obtained lower oppositional behavior scores than all other groups.

Q: __________ explains why pairs of identical twins reared apart during childhood and later reunited may find that they have similar hobbies and vocations.A) Passive gene-environment correlationB) Niche-pickingC) GenotypingD) Epigenesis

Q: Gina is an intellectually curious child. She is a familiar patron at her local library. This example illustratesA) canalization.B) an evocative gene-environment correlation.C) a passive gene-environment correlation.D) an active gene-environment correlation.

Q: Elena and Aidan are both writers and spend a great deal of time reading to their young son. This is an example ofA) a passive gene-environment correlation.B) an evocative gene-environment correlation.C) an active gene-environment correlation.D) niche-picking.

Q: Which of the following is strongly canalized in humans?A) personality developmentB) cognitive developmentC) motor developmentD) social development

Q: Dr. Weasley theorizes that children have unique, genetically influenced reactions to particular experiences. Dr. Weasley studies A) canalization. B) niche-picking. C) gene"environment interaction. D) epigenesis.

Q: Heritability estimates A) reveal that genetic factors are unimportant in personality. B) are controversial measures because they can easily be misapplied. C) show a strong role of heredity in antisocial behavior and major depression. D) give precise information on how children respond to environments designed to maximize development.

Q: Kinship studies reveal a __________ role for heredity in intelligence. A) very strong B) strong C) moderate D) weak

Q: Researchers use __________ to infer the role of heredity in complex human characteristics.A) gene-environment interactionB) heritability estimatesC) canalizationD) niche-picking

Q: Behavioral geneticsA) is devoted to uncovering the contributions of nature and nurture to the diversity in human traits and abilities.B) is a communication process designed to help couples assess their chances of giving birth to a baby with a genetic disorder.C) is devoted to proving that heredity, not the environment, is responsible for human diversity.D) strives to identify variations in DNA sequences and uses these genetic markers to explain almost all variations in human behavior.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about maternity leave? A) The United States has the most generous maternity leave program in the world. B) In the United States, the federal government mandates 12 weeks of paid maternity leave for all working mothers. C) The average length of maternity leave in the United States is not enough to promote favorable maternal mental health and sensitive caregiving. D) All Western nations guarantee women at least six weeks of paid maternity leave.

Q: The second leading cause of neonatal mortality in the United States is A) congenital defects. B) low birth weight. C) sudden infant death syndrome. D) HIV/AIDS.

Q: Which of the following statements summarizes the long-term consequences of birth complications found in Emmy Werner's Kauai study? A) Children who experienced birth trauma never fully acquired the same levels of cognitive development as the control group children. B) As long as birth injuries are not overwhelming, a supportive home environment can restore children's growth. C) Even children who experienced severe birth trauma eventually tested as well on measures of intelligence as those with no birth problems. D) None of the children from troubled family environments achieved at the rate of their control group peers.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about training parents in preterm infant caregiving skills? A) All parents of preterm infants need long-term intensive intervention. B) Just a few sessions of coaching are needed for families with preterm infants, regardless of the parents' economic or personal resources. C) Interventions that support parents of preterm infants generally teach them about the infant's characteristics. D) Interventions that support parents of preterm infants generally teach them about situational and personal barriers.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about kangaroo care?A) It has been shown to be beneficial to the mother, but not to the baby.B) It involves placing the infant in a horizontal position near the parent's stomach.C) It is used often in nonindustrialized nations instead of hospital care.D) It fosters improved oxygenation of the baby's body.

Q: Preterm babies are __________ than full-term babies. A) more often talked to B) less susceptible to the effects of parenting quality C) less often held close D) less irritable

Q: __________ are below their expected weight considering the length of the pregnancy. A) Preterm infants B) Small-for-date infants C) Infants born after induced labor D) Infants born at 38 weeks

Q: __________ is the best available predictor of infant survival and healthy development. A) Ultrasound B) Apgar score C) Maternal age D) Birth weight

Q: Which of the following statements is true about anoxia during labor and delivery? A) Rh factor incompatibility can lead to anoxia. B) The effects of mild to moderate anoxia disappear within the first few months of life. C) When development is severely impaired, anoxia is probably not the cause. D) It occurs during the birth process, not during labor.

Q: Breech babies often experience a cesarean delivery because of the danger ofA) placenta abruptio.B) anoxia.C) infection.D) hyaline membrane rupture.

Q: Tara is in her final month of pregnancy. She is writing a birth plan and would like to know how the use of epidural analgesia might impact her baby. You can tell Tara that exposed newborns tend to A) be hyperactive and animated. B) suck more aggressively when feeding. C) have lower Apgar scores. D) be alert when awake.

Q: Epidural analgesia A) does not cross the placenta. B) weakens uterine contractions. C) induces labor. D) has no negative impact on the baby.

Q: In the United States, the most common approach to controlling pain during labor is the use of A) anesthetics. B) relaxation and breathing techniques. C) a spinal block. D) epidural analgesia.

Q: For healthy women who are assisted by a well-trained doctor or midwife, A) complications rarely occur during home birth. B) the rate of infant death is high during home birth. C) home birth continues to be less safe than hospital birth. D) water birth increases the likelihood of the use of pain-relieving medication.

Q: Water birth is associated withA) longer labor.B) higher rates of infection.C) higher rates of birth complications.D) reduced maternal stress.

Q: When mothers are upright, labor is A) longer. B) more intense. C) shortened. D) more painful.

Q: Studies indicate that mothers who __________ during labor and delivery less often have cesarean deliveries. A) are supported by a doula B) have an epidural C) use anesthetics D) use pitocin

Q: In a typical natural childbirth program, the expectant mother and a companion participate in A) child development classes. B) relaxation and breathing techniques. C) training in the use of breastfeeding and bottle-feeding. D) home-birth training.

Q: Grantly Dick-Read and Ferdinand Lamaze recognized that A) cultural attitudes had taught women to fear the birth experience. B) the health of mothers and babies could best be protected in a hospital or medical birth setting. C) childbirth was a personal experience, rather than a family-centered event. D) analgesics given in mild doses during labor help a birthing mother relax.

Q: After the industrial revolution, childbirth in Western nationsA) became a family-centered event.B) moved to freestanding birth centers.C) moved from home to hospital.D) became less reliant on pain medications.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about approaches to childbirth? A) A Jarara mother delivers her own baby in a birthing pool with a crowd of family members close by. B) A Siriono mother gives birth in full view of the entire community. C) In the Yucatan, a Mayan woman gives birth assisted by medical personnel. D) A Pukapukan girl is so familiar with the events of labor and delivery that she frequently can be seen playing at it.

Q: For a newborn to score a 2 on the pulse or heart rate section on the Apgar, her heart rate should indicate A) no heartbeat. B) under 100 beats per minute. C) 100 to 140 beats per minute. D) over 150 beats per minute.

Q: If baby Jaymie has a combined Apgar score of 7, doctors should A) hand her to her parents, as she is in good physical condition. B) provide immediate emergency assistance. C) put her in an incubator. D) provide some assistance in establishing breathing.

Q: Newborn Wayne's round face, chubby cheeks, large forehead, and big eyes A) are a sign of chromosomal abnormalities. B) indicate that he may have suffered birth trauma. C) make adults feel like picking him up and cuddling him. D) ensure that nonrelated adults and older children will not be drawn to him.

Q: A baby's production of stress hormones during birthA) causes the baby to sleep during dilation and effacement.B) causes the mother to breathe more deeply, increasing the baby's oxygen supply.C) prepares the mother to withstand the pain by anesthetizing the uterus.D) arouses the baby into alertness so it is born wide awake.

Q: The second stage of labor lasts about __________ for a first baby and __________ in later births. A) 10 minutes; 5 minutes B) 50 minutes; 20 minutes C) 3 to 4 hours; 1 hour D) 12 to 14 hours; 4 to 6 hours

Q: The longest stage of labor is A) dilation and effacement of the cervix. B) transition. C) delivery of the baby. D) delivery of the placenta.

Q: Infants born to teenage mothers A) are more likely to have chromosomal disorders than infants born to women in their forties. B) are healthier than infants born to mothers in their thirties. C) have a higher rate of problems, but not directly because of maternal age. D) have a higher rate of problems directly related to immature maternal age.

Q: Pregnancy complication rates increase sharply among women age A) 30 to 35. B) 35 to 40. C) 40 to 45. D) 50 to 55.

Q: Maternal stressA) during pregnancy is associated with higher birth weight.B) hormones cross the placenta, causing a dramatic rise in fetal heart rate.C) is especially detrimental during the third trimester of pregnancy.D) is a concern for a pregnant mother, but does not affect her growing baby.

Q: Folic acid taken around the time of conception can lower the incidence of __________, and taken during the last 10 weeks of pregnancy cuts in half the risk of __________. A) maternal high blood pressure; premature birth B) anemia; cleft palate C) neural tube defects; premature delivery D) anemia; low birth weight

Q: A study of the famine in the Netherlands revealed that women affected by malnutrition during the __________ were more likely to give birth to babies with physical defects. A) first trimester B) fetal period C) second trimester D) third trimester

Q: Julie is in her second trimester of pregnancy. She is physically fit and feeling great. In what kind of exercise should Julie participate? A) any frequent, vigorous exercise B) working up a sweat for more than 30 minutes, four times a week C) seven days of strenuous aerobic exercise followed by seven days of low-impact exercise D) most regular, moderate exercise

Q: An expectant mother who ensures that her meat is well-cooked and has other family members change her cat's litter box is trying to avoid A) toxoplasmosis. B) cytomegalovirus. C) herpes simplex 2. D) AIDS.

Q: The most frequent prenatal infection isA) herpes simplex 2.B) syphilis.C) cytomegalovirus.D) chlamydia.

Q: Even tiny amounts of __________ in the paternal bloodstream cause a dramatic change in the sex ratio of offspring. A) lead B) dioxin C) mercury D) PCBs

Q: In Taiwan, prenatal exposure to very high levels of __________ resulted in low birth weight, discolored skin, and deformities of the gums and nails. A) lead in paint chips B) zinc in fish C) radiation D) PCBs in rice oil

Q: Prenatal __________ exposure from maternal seafood diets predicts deficits in speed of cognitive processing and motor, attention, and verbal test performance during the school years. A) lead B) mercury C) polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB) D) DES

Q: High rates of miscarriage, physical deformities, and slow physical growth have occurred in __________ due to __________. A) Native American reservations; ARND B) inner city neighborhoods; lead exposure C) Minimata; mercury poisoning D) Hiroshima, Nagasaki, and Chernobyl; radiation exposure

Q: Reign's biological mother died of alcohol poisoning. Reign exhibits slow physical growth and has short eyelid openings, a thin upper lip, and a flattened philtrum. Reign probably hasA) fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).B) partial fetal alcohol syndrome (p-FAS).C) alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND).D) brain impairment in a maximum of two areas of functioning.

Q: Hillary is seven months pregnant. She has not yet stopped smoking. If she stops now, she can immediately reduce the risk that her infant will A) smoke in the future. B) be born with physical defects. C) be born underweight. D) have a flattened philtrum.

Q: Prenatal tobacco exposure is linked to A) a predisposition to nicotine addiction during adolescence. B) impaired heart rate and breathing during sleep, infant death, and asthma. C) deformed facial features and poor vision. D) delayed language development and poor fine-motor skills.

Q: Although smoking has declined in Western nations, an estimated _____ percent of U.S. women smoke during their pregnancies. A) 8 B) 11 C) 14 D) 17

Q: It is difficult to assess the damage from illegal drug use during pregnancy because A) the effects of the drugs wear off within days of delivery. B) many users display other high-risk behaviors. C) public interest in the area has diminished. D) prenatally exposed babies rarely develop lasting problems.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about teratogens?A) Aspirin cannot penetrate the placental barrier.B) Having two cups of coffee per day cannot increase the risk of miscarriage.C) Ingesting in excess of 100 milligrams of caffeine per day increases the risk of low birth weight.D) Antidepressant medication use is not linked to any long-term birth complications.

Q: Currently, the most widely used potent teratogen is A) DES. B) Accutane. C) aspirin. D) thalidomide.

Q: Betty was born with deformities of the arms and legs, as well as damage to her heart and kidneys. She scores below average in intelligence. Based on the damage to the developing organism, you could conclude that Betty's mother took __________ while pregnant. A) diethylstilbestrol (DES) B) Accutane C) aspirin D) thalidomide

Q: The effects of teratogens A) are limited to immediate physical damage. B) show up at birth. C) may occur indirectly. D) are no longer a serious concern.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about teratogens during the fetal period? A) Teratogenic damage is usually minor. B) Teratogens cause irreversible brain damage. C) Serious defects are most likely to occur from teratogens. D) Teratogens rarely have any impact.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about teratogens?A) Harm done by them is usually simple and straightforward.B) Larger doses over longer time periods usually have more negative effects.C) They are not influenced by heredity.D) The presence of several negative factors at once can lessen the impact of a single harmful agent.

Q: In the final three months of pregnancy, the fetus A) is especially vulnerable to teratogens. B) gains less than 3 pounds. C) grows 7 inches. D) reduces its body fat to help with temperature regulation.

Q: Higher fetal activity in the last weeks of pregnancy A) predicts a more active infant in the first month of life. B) predicts a more fearful 2-year-old. C) can indicate a premature delivery. D) predicts a more easily frustrated toddler.

Q: Sometime between 22 and 26 weeks, A) vernix and lanugo begin to cover the skin. B) a fetus has a chance of survival outside the womb. C) synchrony between the fetal heart rate and motor activity peaks. D) the external genitals are formed.

Q: During the period of the fetus, A) neurons are first produced. B) the organism remains awake about 6 hours a day. C) brain weight increases tenfold. D) teratogenic damage is the most severe.

Q: Yardley is pregnant with her first child. When should she expect to feel its movements?A) between 8 and 11 weeksB) between 12 and 15 weeksC) between 17 and 20 weeksD) between 21 and 24 weeks

Q: The __________ is the longest prenatal period. A) period of the embryo B) period of the zygote C) period of the fetus D) first trimester

Q: At the end of the period of the embryo, the developing organism A) establishes a regular sleep"wake cycle. B) makes flutters that can be felt by the mother. C) is about 3 inches long and weighs an ounce. D) responds to touch.

Q: At first, the __________ system develops the fastest. A) circulatory B) digestive C) nervous D) endocrine

Q: During the period of the embryo, the __________ becomes the nervous system, the __________ becomes the circulatory system, and the __________ becomes the digestive system. A) ectoderm; mesoderm; endoderm B) ectoderm; endoderm; mesoderm C) mesoderm; ectoderm; endoderm D) endoderm; ectoderm; mesoderm

Q: The period of the embryoA) lasts for about two weeks.B) is the period of the most rapid prenatal changes.C) begins during the second trimester of pregnancy.D) is the period when the developing organism is the least vulnerable.

Q: The umbilical cord A) contains two veins. B) provides the fetus a cushion against jolts caused by the mother's movements. C) grows to a length of 1 to 3 feet. D) develops during the period of the fetus.

Q: From the __________, tiny __________ emerge, which burrow into the uterine wall and start to develop the placenta. A) amnion; veins B) chorion; villi C) trophoblast; hairs D) embryonic disk; veins

Q: The yolk sac A) produces blood cells until the developing liver, spleen, and bone marrow are mature enough to take over this function. B) forms a membrane that encloses the developing organism. C) helps keep the temperature of the prenatal world constant. D) provides a cushion against any jolts caused by the mother's movement.

Q: Which of the following statements is true about the period of the zygote? A) It lasts from implantation to the eighth week of pregnancy. B) During this period, the primitive brain and spinal cord appear. C) During this period, the blastocyst burrows into the uterine lining. D) It spans the first and second trimester of pregnancy.