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Psychology
Q:
Studies have underscored the observations that children and adolescents with psychopathic features show distinct sets of emotional and cognitive deficits that lead to their violent and anti-social behavior.
Q:
Most children display aggression in preschool and kindergarten but reduce these behaviors during early school years primarily due to
A) socialization.
B) strict parental discipline.
C) developmental maturity.
D) psychological maturity.
Q:
In order to understand the effects of any drug, the ________, psychological, psychosocial, and interacting variables must be taken into account.
Q:
According to the dominant contemporary theories of the etiology of rape,
A) rapists are mentally disturbed.
B) sexual socialization plays a crucial role in sexual assault.
C) rapists have compulsive physiological urges to rape.
D) women socialize boys to be aggressive and dominant.
Q:
Suicidality is a common characteristic of older adult psychopaths.
Q:
Imagine you are a child with a language impairment. Examine how your developmental trajectory would be influenced by this impairment. Include detailed descriptions of your academic experiences and peer relationships.
Q:
Most research on drug and alcohol abuse and dependence has concentrated on ________.
Q:
According to Groth, the smallest percentage of rapists fall under which category?
A) Control rape
B) Power rape
C) Anger rape
D) Sadistic rape
Q:
The core behavioral dimension that reflects the interpersonal and emotional components, such as callousness and manipulation of others, is referred to as psychopathic factor I.
Q:
Why must we be cautious when interpreting the relationship between poverty and violence? Explain the role that poverty cofactors play in this relationship.
Q:
When an individual is arrested for a drug abuse violation in the United States, the arresting agency reports to the Department of ________ the type of drug used.
Q:
Which of the following is one of Groth's three categories of rape?
A) Control rape
B) Forceful rape
C) Anger rape
D) Opportunity rape
Q:
Secondary psychopaths are more likely to be found in a maximum security prison.
Q:
Discuss the influence of peer groups on delinquent behavior.
Q:
While drug use has decreased among teens in recent years, ________ is the most commonly used drug among this age group.
Q:
Which statement is consistent with research on men who commit rape?
A) Men who sexually assault women have inadequate social skills.
B) Men who sexually assault women are weak.
C) Men who sexually assault express greater hostility to women.
D) Men who sexually assault want to be dominated by women.
Q:
Some research suggests that psychopathy and bipolar disorder are on the same spectrum of disorders.
Q:
Define conduct disorder, ADHD and oppositional defiant disorder. What are the similarities and differences? Why are the three often used interchangeably in the school system?
Q:
The early onset of drug and alcohol use is an important ________ factor for predicting future substance abuse.
Q:
The rapist motivated by anger-retaliation in the MTC:R3 is similar to the ________ type described in the original MTC.
A) compensatory
B) impulsive
C) sexually-aggressive
D) displaced-aggression
Q:
Hemisphere asymmetry refers to the observation that most psychopaths have superior language ability.
Q:
Compare and contrast the cumulative risk and developmental cascade model.
Q:
In the fall of 2015, the federal government announced a change in policy that would allow thousands of prisoners convicted of ________ to be released earlier than expected.
Q:
In the MTC:R3, the primary motivations are sometimes subdivided according to
A) social competence.
B) secondary motivations.
C) history of offending.
D) responsivity to treatment.
Q:
Current research on gender differences of psychopaths suggests that women far outnumber men.
Q:
Match up the terminology in the left column to the definitions in the right column.
A) The ability to bounce back quickly and adaptively from negative emotional experiences
B) The ability to understand a person from his or her frame of reference
C) The ability to control one's own behavior
D) A person's developmental skills or deficits enhance, affect, or determine the next skill or deficit along a life-course trajectory
E) Psychological measurement
F) Parent-child interactions characterized by parental attitudes toward the child and the emotional climate of the parent-child relationship
G) An emotional response characterized by feelings of concern for another and a desire to alleviate that person's distress
H) A parenting style characterized by a child who becomes intensely distressed and anxious by separation
I) Strategies employed by parents to achieve specific academic, social, or athletic goals across different contexts and situations
J) A cluster of behaviors characterized by persistent and repetitive misbehavior
1> Resilience
2> Parental practices
3> Cognitive empathy
4> Psychometric
5> Dynamic cascade model
6> Conduct disorder
7> Anxious/ambivalent
8> Parental styles
9> Affective empathy
10> Self-regulation
Q:
Pseudo-narcotic is a major classifications of narcotic drugs.
Q:
Which of the following is not one of the four primary motivations of rapists outlined in the revised MTC:R3 classification scheme?
A) Sexual gratification
B) Pervasive hatred
C) Opportunity
D) Vindictiveness
Q:
Psychopathy Screening Device or the PSD is one of the measures specifically designed to identify youths with psychopathic characteristics.
Q:
The use of ________ in the form of private and self-directed speech helps children develop and maintain self-control and self-regulation.
Q:
Cocaine use has been steadily increasing since 2009.
Q:
The Knight and Sims-Knight Three-path model identifies causal pathways in the development of
A) irresistible impulses.
B) mental disorders of rapists.
C) attitudes that support rape.
D) sexual coercive behavior in male offenders.
Q:
A true psychopath consistently displays neurotic and anxious behavior.
Q:
Problem behaviors, such as substance use and delinquent behavior, during the middle school years occur within the ________ context.
Q:
The available evidence indicates that PCP users tend to be polydrug users.
Q:
In the UCR, statutory rapes is considered a
A) noncriminal event.
B) Part I crime.
C) social issue.
D) Part II crime.
Q:
Research indicates that the recidivism rate associated with psychopaths is very high.
Q:
Diana Baumrind's four parental styles include authoritarian, permissive, authoritative, and ________.
Q:
Research overwhelmingly suggests that marijuana is a major cause of violent crime.
Q:
Martin, Taft, and Resick (2007) estimate that 10-14% of ________ have experienced rape.
A) males under age 17
B) married women
C) female college students
D) females under age 17
Q:
Why is it so difficult to properly evaluate the effectiveness of programs designed to treat psychopaths?
A) Because they do not habituate to stimuli easily.
B) Because they are skilled at manipulation.
C) Because they rarely comply with treatment.
D) Because they have difficulty adjusting to new situations.
Q:
Studies examining the education level of inmates in correctional facilities found that many inmates had attained a(n) ________ level of education or less.
Q:
Psychedelics is another name for hallucinogens.
Q:
The FBI's revised definition of rape includes all of the following except
A) male victims.
B) statutory rape.
C) female offenders.
D) penetration of children.
Q:
The autonomic nervous system of the psychopath appears to be
A) deformed.
B) insufficient.
C) ineffective.
D) underaroused.
Q:
Recent research suggests that ________ childcare arrangements have negative impacts on children's social adjustment.
Q:
Cocaine is an opiate narcotic.
Q:
What is the first step in the treatment and rehabilitation of sex offenders?
A) Assess the risk of reoffending
B) Deliver treatment that is consistent with the ability and learning style of the offender
C) Offer adequate community support services
D) Develop a plan to improve social skills
Q:
Which term is central to the dual-process model?
A) Temperament
B) Hypothalamus.
C) Empathy
D) Learning
Q:
Most of the research and theoretical work examining the effects of peer rejection, aggression, and delinquent behavior has focused on ________.
Q:
More individuals are incarcerated in jails and prisons for drug offenses than for any other offense.
Q:
The category of sexual aggression in which the offender becomes sexually aroused by physical or psychological brutality is called
A) eroticized aggression.
B) expressive sexual aggression.
C) coercive sexual aggression.
D) instrumental sexual aggression.
Q:
Neuropsychological indicators have been repeatedly found in psychopaths, as reflected in electrodermal measures, cardiovascular, and other nervous system indices. These indicators are called
A) confluence.
B) markers.
C) cloaca.
D) neuroindicators.
Q:
Children tend to reject those peers who frequently use forms of ________ as their preferred way of dealing with others.
Q:
Most research on drug and alcohol abuse has focused on males.
Q:
What affect has globalization had on a) the incidence of terrorism and b) the power of terrorist organizations?
Q:
Compared to male psychopaths, female psychopaths
A) commit more property crime.
B) have higher recidivism rates.
C) are less aggressive and violent.
D) have lower recidivism rates.
Q:
One of the strongest predictors of later involvement in antisocial behavior is early ________ by peers.
Q:
According to the text, juveniles who occasionally sell drugs to friends frequently become involved in serious delinquency.
Q:
Why would a terrorist volunteer for a suicide mission?
Q:
Which of the following statements about juvenile psychopathy is correct?
A) There are no instruments available for measuring juvenile psychopathy.
B) Juvenile psychopathy as a construct clearly does not exist.
C) Some researchers are concerned about the negative implications of labeling juveniles as psychopaths.
D) Juvenile psychopaths display behavior identical to that of adult psychopaths.
E) Juvenile psychopathy is correlated with sexual aggression.
Q:
The leading psychological diagnosis for American children is ________.
Q:
Describe the resources that foster resilience, or the capacity to overcome challenges and adversity, in emerging adulthood.
Q:
Describe the interaction between education and emerging adulthood.
Q:
What is emerging adulthood, and why do critics argue against calling it a "distinct period of development"?
Q:
Emerging adults are more likely than younger or older individuals toA) engage in community service.B) attend religious services.C) experiment with illegal drugs.D) question their sexuality.
Q:
Research shows that emerging adults who continue to reside with their parents experience
A) a more successful transition to college life.
B) extreme loneliness and isolation from friends.
C) higher academic achievement.
D) an increase in parent"child conflict over values related to the young person's future.
Q:
If Carmen has such qualities as positive self-esteem, persistence, confidence in her ability to reach her goals, and the capacity to meet challenges and overcome diversity, we would say that Carmen
A) engages in dualistic thinking.
B) is resilient.
C) has mastered epistemic cognition.
D) has achieved identity foreclosure.
Q:
Victoria is an emerging adult who views religion as important in her life; therefore, she
A) is likely to engage in more community service.
B) has not evaluated her beliefs against alternatives.
C) is likely to get married at a later age.
D) views stressful and confusing events through an unrealistic filter.
Q:
During the late teens and twenties, attendance at religious services
A) dramatically increases.
B) drops to its lowest level throughout the lifespan.
C) increases for males but decreases for females.
D) increases for females but decreases for males.
Q:
Surveys of freshmen students revealed that the number who say there is a "very good chance" they will volunteer in their communitiesA) is significantly larger than the number who actually do.B) is nearly twice what it was 20 years ago.C) has held steady for the past 40 to 50 years.D) has declined somewhat in recent decades.
Q:
To attain adult status, which of the following factors do most emerging adults say is essential?
A) finishing their education
B) settling into a career
C) marrying and starting a family
D) constructing a worldview
Q:
Women who pursue male-dominated careers usually have
A) "masculine" traits.
B) low self-efficacy.
C) greater availability of and access to mentors.
D) "feminine" traits.
Q:
U.S. emerging adults who cohabit prior to engagement tend to
A) be less androgynous.
B) have had less sexual partners.
C) be more religious.
D) have parents who divorced.
Q:
Two interrelated factors that increase the chances that an intimate bond forged in emerging adulthood will be satisfying and last a lifetime are __________ and __________.
A) initial period of cohabitation; strong sexual attraction
B) financial stability; complex self-concepts
C) partner similarity; good communication
D) "opposites attract"; sexual compatibility
Q:
On average, which of the following individuals would report having more frequent and satisfying sex?A) John, a bachelor who prefers casual sexB) Miranda, a single motherC) Datu, a recent college graduate who is marriedD) Sancia, a single woman with a steady boyfriend
Q:
At the end of high school, about _____ percent of U.S. young people are sexually active, and by age 25 __________.
A) 25; that number increases to include all those who are married
B) 50; that number rises to over 75 percent
C) 60; nearly all have become sexually active
D) 70; more are active but it varies greatly by gender and SES
Q:
Emerging adults' romantic ties
A) last longer and involve greater trust and commitment.
B) rarely lead to cohabitation.
C) express a more limited set of desired qualities and expectations.
D) tend to be short-lived.
Q:
In his psychosocial theory, Erikson identifies __________ as a major task of emerging adulthood.
A) industry
B) intimacy
C) integrity
D) autonomy
Q:
Hans has chosen to major in biochemistry during college. As he takes classes he will embark on __________ in which he reflects on his motivation, performance, and career prospects in this field.
A) relativistic thinking
B) a broad exploration of options
C) an in-depth evaluation
D) dualistic thinking