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Q:
In hemorrhage, cells in the penumbra:
a. lose much of their oxygen.
b. lose much of their glucose.
c. are flooded with excess oxygen.
d. act quickly to strengthen the blood-brain barrier.
Q:
To date, the most effective laboratory method minimizing the damage resulting from stroke in nonhuman animals has been to:
a. use drugs which trap free radicals.
b. use drugs which effect cannabinoids.
c. use neurotrophins which block apoptosis.
d. cool the brain.
Q:
One approach in minimizing stroke damage in laboratory animals is the use of:
a. calcium
b. serotonin
c. cannabinoids
d. opioids
Q:
Researchers have tried using drugs that block apoptosis. Results have been:
a. favorable in animals and human trials.
b. favorable in animal trials but too costly to try with humans.
c. favorable in animal trials but difficult or impractical to apply to humans.
d. unfavorable in all research trials.
Q:
In research aimed at minimizing damage due to stroke, attempts to prevent overstimulation of cells have produced:
a. very promising results.
b. disappointing results.
c. a complex interaction between age of patient and season of the year.
d. positive results in humans, but not so for animals.
Q:
Which of the following would be the best treatment for helping someone who is suffering from a stroke caused by a blood clot?
a. decrease activity of the sodium-potassium pump
b. warm the brain
c. administer tPA
d. enhance glutamate release
Q:
Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA):
a. is recommended for hemorrhage.
b. overstimulates glutamate receptors.
c. should be administered a few days after stroke.
d. is helpful in cases of ischemia.
Q:
Although the following methods may or may not actually work, which one would theoretically be of potential benefit to stroke victims?
a. increasing activity at glutamate receptors
b. opening sodium channels
c. closing potassium channels
d. blocking glutamate receptors
Q:
Damage due to stroke caused by ischemia can be minimized by administering a drug that:
a. breaks up blood clots.
b. overstimulates neurons in and around the damaged area.
c. increases the release of glutamate.
d. slows down the sodium-potassium pump.
Q:
A stroke kills neurons in two waves, first by ____ and second by ____.
a. overstimulation; understimulation
b. Understimulation; overstimulation
c. collateral sprouting; denervation supersensitivity
d. denervation supersensitivity; collateral sprouting
Q:
Ischemia and hemorrhage kill neurons by:
a. understimulating them.
b. overstimulating them.
c. overactivating the sodium-potassium pump.
d. depleting the glutamate supply available to neurons.
Q:
____ cells proliferate after a stroke.
a. Penumbra
b. Microglia
c. Ischemia
d. Cancer
Q:
After ischemia, neurons deprived of blood:
a. transform from neurons into glia.
b. lose much of their oxygen and glucose supplies.
c. break down the blood-brain barrier.
d. increase the velocity of their action potentials.
Q:
After a stroke, cells in the penumbra:
a. are the first to die.
b. help to remove dead or dying cells in the area of damage.
c. quickly become more active, compensating for the area of damage.
d. may die days or weeks after a stroke.
Q:
What does edema mean?
a. Lack of glucose
b. Ischemia from an obstruction of an artery
c. Hemorrhage of an artery
d. Swelling due to accumulation of fluid
Q:
Ischemia is to ____ as hemorrhage is to ____.a. older individuals; younger individualsb. proximal; distalc. obstruction; ruptured. barely noticeable; lethal
Q:
A stroke which is caused when an artery ruptures is also known as:
a. ischemia.
b. hemorrhage.
c. closed head injury.
d. penumbra.
Q:
Which of the following is not a cerebrovascular accident?
a. Ischemia
b. Hemorrhage
c. Stroke
d. Penumbra
Q:
A stroke caused by an artery rupturing is also known as:
a. ischemia.
b. hemorrhage.
c. closed head injury.
d. penumbra.
Q:
Which of the following is the most common cause of a stroke?a. Lack of glucoseb. Ischemia from an obstruction of an arteryc. Hemorrhage of an arteryd. Blow to the head
Q:
A sharp blow to the head resulting from an assault or trauma that does not actually puncture the brain is called a:
a. stroke.
b. cerebrovascular accident.
c. hemorrhage.
d. closed head injury.
Q:
Closed head injury results in damage partially because of:
a. increased production of myelin.
b. excessive deficit of neurotrophins.
c. rotational forces that push the brain against the inside of the skull.
d. infection.
Q:
The most common cause of brain damage in young people is:
a. infection.
b. gunshot wounds.
c. stroke.
d. closed head injury.
Q:
Closed head injury is:
a. the most common cause of brain damage in young adults.
b. usually fatal.
c. the most common cause of Korsakoff's syndrome.
d. related to Alzheimer's disease.
Q:
Focal hand dystonia, sometimes called "musician's cramp", is caused by:
a. extreme overlap of cortical representation of the fingers.
b. deterioration of muscles in the hand.
c. demyelination of neurons in the fingers.
d. buildup of excess GABA in the temporal cortex.
Q:
Musicians who use the left hand to finger the violin strings have some alterations in one brain area, which is the:
a. left hemisphere prefrontal cortex.
b. right hemisphere prefrontal cortex.
c. left hemisphere postcentral gyrus.
d. right hemisphere postcentral gyrus.
Q:
An MEG study of professional musicians listening to pure tones showed that:
a. professional musicians had brain responses that were twice as strong as non-musicians.
b. professional musicians had slightly less brain responses as non-musicians.
c. professional musicians had drastically less brain responses as non-musicians.
d. professional musicians had brain responses five times as strong as non-musicians.
Q:
Brain studies of blind people suggest that they have greater attention to touch and auditory stimulation because:
a. cortical areas for touch and audition are thicker.
b. their visual cortex is used for touch and verbal tasks.
c. they have greater neural branching.
d. they have greater neurotrophin release.
Q:
Which of the following factors seems to be particularly important for branching of neurons during brain development?a. Physical activityb. Playing logic gamesc. Having good teachersd. Having a sterile environment
Q:
Research in people over age 60 who were randomly assigned to experience six months of aerobic exercise showed:
a. that they developed more axons.
b. that they developed less tumors.
c. that they developed greater thickness of the cortex.
d. that they developed less thickness of the cortex.
Q:
What is different about rats raised in an enriched environment in comparison to rats raised in an impoverished environment?
a. a more pleasant personality
b. improved learning performance
c. better parenting skills
d. nothing
Q:
Which of the following aspects of brain and neural functioning can be most clearly altered by experience?
a. velocity of action potentials
b. structure of dendrites and axons
c. chemical constituents of the ventricles
d. number of laminae in the cerebral cortex
Q:
The areas of the cortex used by expert video game players are most likely to ____ than the same cortical areas of those who don"t play video games.
a. be thicker
b. have smaller, but a greater number of neurons
c. have faster action potentials
d. be more resistant to transcortical stimulation
Q:
Keeping animals in a varied environment with stimulation increases the:
a. branching of dendrites.
b. speed of action potentials.
c. density of Nodes of Ranvier along the axon.
d. thickness of axons.
Q:
Which of the following, if any, would be more damaging to an adult brain than to the brain of an infant or fetus?
a. Exposure to alcohol
b. Infections like German measles
c. Iodine deficiency in the diet
d. All of these are more damaging to an infant brain.
Q:
On average, exposure to nicotine during pregnancy increases risk of ____ deficits.
a. emotional
b. attention
c. learning
d. memory
Q:
Children of mothers who smoke cigarettes during pregnancy are at an increased risk of:
a. intellectual deficits.
b. Korsakoff's syndrome.
c. Rett syndrome.
d. Parkinson's disease.
Q:
Children of mothers who use cocaine during pregnancy:a. have a slightly higher birth weight.b. are likely to develop Turner's syndrome.c. have a slightly lower IQ score.d. are born with severe abnormalities resembling cerebral palsy.
Q:
Alcohol can damage the developing brain by:
a. tearing the cell membrane.
b. increasing synaptic inhibition and therefore apoptosis.
c. overstimulating neurons.
d. interfering with protein production.
Q:
How much alcohol, if any, can a pregnant woman drink without worrying about the negative effects on her child?
a. The equivalent of two cocktails a day
b. The equivalent of one beer a day
c. Anything less than what causes her to act drunk
d. Unknown, and therefore abstention is recommended
Q:
Alcohol suppresses the release of ____, the brain's main excitatory transmitter.
a. 5-HT
b. DA
c. GABA
d. glutamate
Q:
What brain abnormalities are found in children with fetal alcohol syndrome?a. short axons with few branchesb. short dendrites with few branchesc. lack of dopamine receptorsd. smaller than normal ventricles
Q:
The most likely reason that children with fetal alcohol syndrome have brain abnormalities is because alcohol:
a. overexcites neurons.
b. stimulates nerve growth factor.
c. decreases apoptosis.
d. decreases release of neurotrophins.
Q:
What condition would be suspected if a young child shows decreased alertness, hyperactivity, mental retardation, motor problems, a heart defect, and abnormal facial features?
a. fetal alcohol syndrome
b. Turner's syndrome
c. Klinefelter's syndrome
d. PKU
Q:
The mechanism of fetal alcohol syndrome probably relates to:
a. overexcited neurons.
b. apoptosis.
c. decreases apoptosis.
d. necrosis.
Q:
Children of mothers who drink heavily during pregnancy are born with:
a. fetal alcohol syndrome
b. Turner's syndrome
c. Klinefelter's syndrome
d. PKU
Q:
In infants, anesthetic drugs can increase:a. proliferation.b. migration.c. myelination.d. apoptosis.
Q:
What modern day practice helps prevent an inadequate production of thyroid hormones?
a. fluoride in drinking water
b. processed sugar
c. iodized salt
d. artificial sweeteners
Q:
An iodine deficiency in the diet can lead to an inadequate production of thyroid hormones. What is the result if this occurs in an infant or developing fetus?
a. Down's syndrome
b. mental retardation
c. Tourette's syndrome
d. accelerated body growth
Q:
After maturity, the apoptotic mechanisms become:
a. hyperactive.
b. extinct.
c. dormant.
d. very complex.
Q:
Compared to an adult, a fetus has:
a. more neurons.
b. approximately the same number of neurons.
c. about half the number of neurons.
d. about one-tenth the number of neurons.
Q:
For survival, developing neurons need:
a. neurotrophins only.
b. neurotrophins and synaptic input.
c. synaptic input only.
d. apoptosis.
Q:
The most likely explanation for the excess proliferation of neurons in early development is that it:
a. compensates for connection errors.
b. uses up excess stored fuel.
c. increases learning capacity when it is most needed.
d. prevents apoptosis.
Q:
Massive cell death in the brain during prenatal development is:
a. an indication of a genetic abnormality.
b. an indication of restricted blood flow to the fetus.
c. usually due to an autoimmune disorder.
d. normal.
Q:
In response to nervous system injury, neurotrophins:
a. cause the neuron's death.
b. reduce inflammation due to this injury.
c. increase regrowth of damaged axons.
d. promote apoptosis.
Q:
Which statement most accurately describes embryonic development of the nervous system in humans?
a. The majority of cells remain as primitive neurons until birth.
b. All synapses that are formed are permanent.
c. Neurons form before birth; synapses form after birth.
d. Far more neurons are produced than will ultimately survive.
Q:
At later stages of the neuron's development, neurotrophins:
a. increase the branching of axons.
b. cause the neuron's death.
c. become converted into myelin.
d. connect the axon to axons of adjoining cells.
Q:
In development, neurotrophins ____. During adulthood, they ___.
a. preserve neurons; produce apoptosis
b. produce apoptosis; increase neuronal branching
c. facilitate differentiation; facilitate migration
d. preserve neurons; increase neuronal branching
Q:
An axon that does not receive enough neurotrophins from a target cell will:
a. branch out and form other synapses on other cells.
b. manufacture its own neurotrophins.
c. degenerate and die.
d. fail to reabsorb transmitters that have already been released.
Q:
Developing neurons need ____ for survival.
a. neurotrophins only
b. neurotrophins and synaptic input
c. synaptic input only
d. apoptosis
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a function of neurotrophins?
a. Direct axonal growth during development.
b. Increase axonal branching in mature neurons.
c. Increase regrowth of axons after brain damage.
d. Induce apoptosis of neurons.
Q:
The function of neurotrophins is to:a. inhibit proliferation.b. promote survival of axons.c. be used as fuel.d. signal that an axon has been "rejected."
Q:
Some neurons die during development because:
a. they are surrounded by glia.
b. they do not receive enough GABA.
c. they receive too much NGF.
d. they fail to receive enough NGF.
Q:
What is apoptosis?
a. the growth of an axon in response to NGF
b. the leakage of transmitters from vesicles
c. a program of "suicide" by a neuron
d. dendritic branching in the sympathetic nervous system
Q:
If a sympathetic nervous system axon does not receive enough nerve growth factor, the neuron will:
a. kill itself.
b. grow a shorter axon.
c. compensate by growing more dendrites.
d. decrease its velocity of action potentials.
Q:
Apoptosis:
a. is a programmed mechanism of cell death.
b. promotes the survival and growth of the axon.
c. promotes the survival and growth of dendrites.
d. promotes the activity of neurons.
Q:
Necrosis:
a. is a programmed mechanism of cell death.
b. is cell death caused by an injury or a toxic substance.
c. promotes the survival and growth of dendrites.
d. promotes the activity of neurons.
Q:
Nerve growth factor (NGF):
a. promotes the survival and growth of the axon.
b. is a fuel metabolized by neurons.
c. promotes programmed cell death.
d. is a hormone first released at puberty.
Q:
What is signaled by nerve growth factor (NGF)?
a. That a target cell has "accepted" an axon
b. Which target cell a growing axon should connect with
c. That axons should elongate as the body grows bigger
d. The need for new neurons to form in brain areas that are lacking in neurons
Q:
Why is it that every axon in an adult mammal has a target cell (muscle cell or other neuron) with which it makes synaptic contact?
a. Each target cell causes the growth of a neuron and its axon.
b. After formation, axons release a chemical that causes a target cell to form.
c. Axons that fail to find a target cell die.
d. An axon will make contact with any kind of cell and adjust its function as necessary.
Q:
Why is it that all neurons in a healthy adult brain have made appropriate connections?
a. Chemical messages from our muscles tell our brain how many neurons to form and that number perfectly matches the connections required.
b. If an axon does not make the appropriate connections by a certain age, it dies.
c. We are born with all connections formed.
d. Connections form rapidly, but we learn to use whatever connections have formed.
Q:
____ steer new axonal branches and synapses in the right direction.a. Chemokinesb. Immunoglobulinc. Gliad. Neurotrophins
Q:
What is meant by neural Darwinism?
a. The brains of higher primates are the ones that are most similar to those of humans.
b. Most individual differences in the brain are due to genetic mutations.
c. Successful neurons develop while less successful neurons weaken or die.
d. Successful neurons reproduce while less successful neurons do not.
Q:
The concept that neurons refine their many connections based on which ones are most successful is known as:
a. natural selection.
b. evolution.
c. survival of the fittest.
d. neural Darwinism.
Q:
Competition of neurons for postsynaptic sites results in survival of only the most successful axons. This general principle is called:
a. natural selection.
b. evolution.
c. apoptosis.
d. neural Darwinism.
Q:
Which of the following are selective as axons form synapses with target cells?
a. axons, but not target cells
b. target cells, but not axons
c. both axons and target cells
d. neither axons nor target cells
Q:
Axons sort themselves over the surface of the target area:
a. by following a gradient of chemicals.
b. through apoptosis.
c. through necrosis.
d. based on their size.
Q:
Which of the following best describes the process by which developing axons find their general target areas?
a. completely random growth
b. shape attraction
c. electrical attraction
d. chemical attraction
Q:
What visual capabilities did Sperry's newt have after Sperry cut the optic nerve and rotated the eye?
a. It regained normal vision.
b. It saw the world upside down and backwards.
c. It required experience to relearn how to see.
d. It remained blind.
Q:
When Sperry cut a newt's optic nerve and rotated the eye by 180 degrees, each axon:
a. degenerated.
b. regenerated to a random location.
c. regenerated to the area where it had originally been.
d. regenerated, but to the area appropriate to its new location.