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Psychology
Q:
With regard to sleep and arousal, the locus coeruleus is:
a. very active during sleep.
b. active when the pontomesencephalon is not.
c. almost completely inactive during sleep.
d. instrumental in waking us up.
Q:
One part of the reticular formation that contributes to cortical arousal is known as the:
a. tectomesencephalon
b. pontomesencephalon
c. corticomesencephalon
d. rubromesencephalon
Q:
Stimulation of the pontomesencephalon:
a. awakens a sleeping individual.
b. decreases alertness in someone already awake.
c. shifts the EEG from short waves to long, slow waves.
d. delays the onset of the next REM period.
Q:
What is activated by the reticular formation?
a. the spinal cord
b. only those portions of the cerebral cortex involved in processing sensory information
c. only subcortical structures in the brain stem and midbrain
d. wide regions of the entire cerebral cortex
Q:
The role of the reticular formation in arousal is that it is:
a. the single, critical system in arousing the cortex.
b. only one of several systems involved in arousal.
c. activated only by external stimuli.
d. activated only by internal stimuli.
Q:
What is the result of electrical stimulation to the reticular formation?
a. Sudden onset of sleep
b. Increased alertness
c. Coma
d. Hallucinations
Q:
The ____ is a structure that extends from the medulla into the forebrain.
a. reticular formation
b. tectum
c. tegmentum
d. thalamus
Q:
After cutting each of the individual tracts that enter the medulla and spinal cord, depriving the brain of almost all sensory input, an animal:
a. continues to have periods of wakefulness and sleep.
b. stops sleeping.
c. goes into a coma.
d. enters a prolonged state of sleep.
Q:
After a cut through the midbrain separates the forebrain and part of the midbrain from all the lower structures, an animal:
a. stops sleeping.
b. sleeps a normal amount per day, but lacks REM sleep.
c. enters a prolonged state of sleep.
d. alternates rapidly between sleep and wakefulness.
Q:
In comparison to NREM dreams, REM dreams:
a. are less likely to include striking visual imagery.
b. are more likely to include complicated plots.
c. do not contain violence.
d. are almost always less than five minutes.
Q:
Which of the following occurs as a normal night's sleep progresses?
a. Stage 4 and REM both increase.
b. Stage 4 and REM both decrease.
c. Stage 4 increases, while REM decreases.
d. Stage 4 decreases, while REM increases.
Q:
Typically, a person who falls asleep enters:
a. stage 4 and slowly progresses through the stages 3, 2, 1 and then REM.
b. REM and then slowly progresses from stage 4, to 3, then 2, and lastly 1.
c. stage 1 and slowly progresses through stages 2, 3 and 4, but not necessarily in order.
d. stage 1 and slowly progresses through stages 2, 3 and 4 in order.
Q:
What is the best way to determine if an individual who claims to never dream does, in fact, have dreams?
a. Ask them about their dreams immediately after they wake up in the morning.
b. Wake them up during REM sleep and ask them if they have been dreaming.
c. Wake them up during NREM sleep and ask them if they have been dreaming.
d. Ask them under hypnosis if they have had any dreams recently.
Q:
The relationship between sleep stage and dreaming is that dreams:
a. occur only in REM sleep.
b. occur only in NREM sleep.
c. are more frequent and more vivid in REM sleep.
d. are more frequent and more vivid in NREM sleep.
Q:
Compared to the earlier part, the later part of a night's sleep:
a. includes a larger percentage of REM sleep.
b. includes a lower percentage of REM sleep.
c. is characterized by declining body temperature.
d. has more slow wave sleep.
Q:
For a normal person, about how long does a cycle of sleep (from stage 1 to stage 4 and back again) last?
a. 10 minutes
b. 90 minutes
c. 4 hours
d. 7 hours
Q:
For a normal person, which part of a night's sleep contains the largest percentage of stage 4 sleep?
a. early in the night
b. the middle of the night
c. toward the end of the night
d. all parts equally
Q:
The EEG record for REM sleep is most similar to which other sleep stage?
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stage 3
d. stage 4
Q:
After entering stage 4 for the first time each evening, the sleeper typically:
a. returns immediately to stage 1.
b. enters REM.
c. cycles back through stages 3 and 2.
d. wakes up.
Q:
Facial twitches are most characteristic of which stage of sleep?
a. stage 2
b. stage 3
c. stage 4
d. REM
Q:
Sometimes people find themselves unable to move their postural muscles immediately after awakening. Why?
A Blood pressure is too low.
B The motor nerves are inactive until body temperature reaches its normal level.
C An increase in light striking the eyes reflexively inhibits the motor neurons.
D Part of the brain is still asleep.
Q:
REM sleep is characterized by which of the following?
a. tension and activity of the postural muscles
b. low and steady heart and breathing rates
c. a high level of brain activity
d. a highly synchronized EEG pattern
Q:
Which of the following is NOT associated with REM sleep?
a. increased probability of dreaming
b. facial twitches
c. EEG pattern resembling wakefulness
d. tense and active postural muscles
Q:
It is possible to determine a person's stage of sleep through which kinds of monitoring?
a. EEG and GSR
b. GSR and eye movements
c. EEG and eye movements
d. body position and carbon dioxide level in the blood
Q:
During REM sleep, the EEG shows:
a. regular, high-voltage slow waves.
b. irregular, high-voltage slow waves.
c. regular, low-voltage slow waves.
d. irregular, low-voltage fast waves.
Q:
What is synonymous with paradoxical sleep?
a. alpha waves
b. stages 1 and 2
c. stages 3 and 4
d. REM sleep
Q:
What is paradoxical about paradoxical sleep?
a. It serves restorative functions, and yet the body has no apparent need for it.
b. It is light sleep in some ways and deep sleep in other ways.
c. It depends on serotonin for its onset and acetylcholine for its offset.
d. It is associated with dreaming although brain activity is low.
Q:
What is one of the contradictions in "paradoxical" sleep?
a. The frequency of the brain waves is low, while the amplitude is high.
b. The brain is very active, while many of the muscles are deeply relaxed.
c. Subcortical structures are very active, while the cerebral cortex is inactive.
d. Postural muscles are tense, while heart rate and breathing rate are very low.
Q:
EEG waves are larger when brain activity decreases because:
a. the EEG measures muscle tension, which also decreases.
b. neurons are becoming more synchronized.
c. neurons are becoming more desynchronized.
d. blood flow is increasing.
Q:
With each succeeding stage of sleep (from 1 to 4):
a. breathing and heart rates increase.
b. brain activity increases.
c. slow, large-amplitude waves increase in number.
d. brain waves become smaller.
Q:
How do sleep stages 3 and 4 differ?
a. body position
b. percentage of REM
c. percentage of serotonin that is released
d. percentage of slow, low amplitude waves
Q:
What is also known as slow-wave sleep?
a. alpha wave sleep
b. stages 1 and 2
c. stages 3 and 4
d. REM sleep
Q:
Slow-wave sleep is comprised of:
a. alpha wave sleep.
b. stages 1 and 2.
c. stages 3 and 4.
d. REM sleep.
Q:
A sharp high-amplitude negative wave followed by a smaller, slower, positive wave is called:
a. a sleep spindle.
b. a K-complex.
c. a slow-wave.
d. REM.
Q:
Sleep spindles originate from:
a. PGO waves.
b. sudden stimuli.
c. SCN neurons.
d. interactions between the thalamus and cortex.
Q:
Sleep spindles and K-complexes are most characteristic of which sleep stage?
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stage 3
d. stage 4
Q:
What do the EEG waves look like when brain activity is "desynchronized"?
a. long, slow waves of large amplitude
b. short, rapid waves of large amplitude
c. regular alternation between waves of large amplitude and waves of small amplitude
d. irregular waves with low amplitude
Q:
Alpha waves are characteristic of what type of activity?
a. NREM sleep
b. Nightmares
c. relaxed wakefulness
d. periods of great excitement
Q:
An electroencephalograph displays:
a. action potentials of individual neurons.
b. a net average of all the neurons' potentials.
c. the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain.
d. the electrical resistance of the scalp.
Q:
An polysomnograph displays:
a. action potentials of individual neurons.
b. a combination of EEG and eye-movement records.
c. the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain.
d. the electrical resistance of the scalp.
Q:
What is the best way to objectively determine if someone is asleep?
a. Monitor breathing rates.
b. Measure muscle tension.
c. Monitor brain waves.
d. Use self-report measures.
Q:
What does an electroencephalograph measure?
a. action potentials in an individual neuron
b. the electrical resistance of the scalp
c. the rate of glucose uptake in active regions of the brain
d. the average of the electrical potentials of the cells in a given region of the brain
Q:
If you take a melatonin pill in the early afternoon, you will:
a. become very active.
b. be wide awake in a very short period of time.
c. become sleepy within two hours.
d. not sleep well that night.
Q:
Why will taking a melatonin pill in the evening have little effect on sleepiness?
a. Body temperature is too low.
b. Body temperature is too high.
c. The pineal gland is only active in the morning.
d. The pineal gland produces melatonin at that time anyway.
Q:
Taking melatonin pills in the late evening:
a. phase-advances the biological clock.
b. phase-delays the biological clock.
c. increases sleepiness.
d. has no noticeable effects.
Q:
The pineal gland releases the ____ hormone, which influences both circadian and circannual rhythms.
a. androgen
b. melanopsin
c. melatonin
d. Estrogen
Q:
If you wanted to go to sleep at 11 pm, the best time to take melatonin would be:
a. at the time you go to bed.
b. about 9 pm.
c. when you wake up that morning.
d. at lunchtime.
Q:
When do the secretions of melatonin begin?
a. just before a person awakens
b. when body temperature is at its lowest
c. when body temperature is at its highest
d. a couple of hours before a person naturally falls asleep
Q:
In one family that has a mutation in the gene responsible for their PER protein, behavior changed in what way?
a. They had REM sleep but no non-REM sleep.
b. They sometimes experienced several consecutive days of insomnia.
c. They liked to go to bed early and wake up early.
d. They suffered sudden attacks of sleepiness during the day.
Q:
People with a mutation in their per gene are more likely to:
a. wake up early.
b. go to bed late.
c. wake up late.
d. have high melatonin levels.
Q:
Alteration of the per gene in humans is associated with:
a. prolonged circadian rhythms.
b. shortened circadian rhythms.
c. absence of circadian rhythms.
d. narcolepsy.
Q:
When the PER and TIM levels are low, they result in:
a. narcolepsy.
b. insomnia.
c. sleepiness.
d. wakefulness.
Q:
When the PER and TIM levels increase, they feed back to inhibit the genes that produce the ____ molecules.
a. Tau
b. messenger RNA
c. Chronos
d. DNA
Q:
The PER and TIM proteins accumulate during the day until they cause sleepiness. What prevents them from continuing to accumulate at night?
a. Metabolic rates increase at night, so proteins are digested faster than they can be synthesized.
b. The high levels of melatonin present at night react with the proteins to disable them.
c. The proteins are unstable at the lower body temperatures that are typical at night.
d. When the proteins reach a high level, they turn off the genes that produce them.
Q:
The proteins PER and TIM, originally discovered in insect but now found in mammals also, influence circadian rhythms by:
a. building up during the day and declining during sleep.
b. being transformed into melatonin.
c. stimulating and inhibiting (respectively) the release of acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex.
d. providing negative feedback from the muscles to the neurons that innervate them.
Q:
Alternation of TIM protein levels by a pulse of light during the night will:
a. shorten the onset of sleep.
b. increase PER protein levels.
c. phase-advance the temperature cycle.
d. decrease sleepiness.
Q:
The retinohypothalamic path extends directly from the:
a. SCN to the hypothalamus.
b. retina to the SCN.
c. hypothalamus to the SCN.
d. retina to the cortex.
Q:
The input from the eyes to the suprachiasmatic nucleus, responsible for shifting the phase of the circadian rhythm, originates from:
a. cones only.
b. ganglion cells that are not connected to any cones or rods.
c. cones and rods equally.
d. rods only.
Q:
The circadian rhythm is reset by input from special ganglion cells in the retina. These ganglion cells are unusual in that they:
a. receive input from only cones, not rods.
b. are located only in a doughnut-shaped band surrounding the fovea.
c. respond directly to light, but respond very slowly.
d. become active only at night or in very dim light.
Q:
The retinohypothalamic pathway receives input from the:
a. retinal ganglion cells that respond directly to light.
b. occipital cortex.
c. SCN.
d. LGN.
Q:
The retinohypothalamic path to the SCN comes from a special population of retinal ganglion cells that have their own photopigment, called:
a. circaopsin.
b. photopsin
c. rodopsin.
d. melanopsin.
Q:
A small branch of the optic nerve, known as the ____ extends directly from the retina to the SCN.
a. opticthalamic path
b. retinohypothalamic path
c. opticretinal path
d. retinothalamic path
Q:
The SCN is located just above the:
a. optic chiasm.
b. thalamus.
c. hypothalamus.
d. visual cortex.
Q:
After isolating a neuron from the rest of the brain, you find that it has a moderately stable circadian rhythm. The most likely home of this neuron is in the:
a. optic nerve.
b. MPOA.
c. SCN.
d. pineal gland.
Q:
Researchers have demonstrated that the expression of the SCN genes can be changed through:
a. exposure of the eyes to light.
b. barometric pressure.
c. the diet.
d. morning exercise.
Q:
By altering ____, the SCN produces circadian rhythms.
a. blood pressure
b. action potential velocity
c. the production of proteins
d. axon myelination
Q:
The SCN produces circadian rhythms by altering:
a. blood pressure.
b. production of proteins.
c. action potential velocity.
d. axon myelination.
Q:
How is the circadian rhythm of adult hamsters affected after transplanting SCN tissue from hamster fetuses with abnormal (20 hour) circadian rhythms?
a. There is no change from their previous 24 hour cycle.
b. It depends on the age of the adult hamsters.
c. The adult hamsters adopted the rhythm of the transplanted tissue.
d. All indications of a cycle disappeared.
Q:
When fetal hamster SCN tissue was transplanted, the adult recipients' biological clocks:
a. no longer functioned.
b. shifted by one hour.
c. began producing a rhythm consistent with that of the donor.
d. were unaffected by the donor SCN tissue.
Q:
The role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the regulation of biological rhythms is to:
a. coordinate several biological clocks.
b. feed visual information to the biological clock.
c. generate the circadian rhythm.
d. generate circannual rhythms.
Q:
What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in circadian rhythms?
a. Its neurons generate a 24-hour rhythm by themselves.
b. Its neurons can reset the biological clock, but they do not generate it.
c. It relays visual information to the biological clock.
d. It relays information from the biological clock to areas that control temperature and activity.
Q:
What is a strong piece of evidence that the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) generates the circadian rhythm?
a. Stimulation of the SCN awakens an individual.
b. SCN neurons generate a circadian rhythm of impulses even after removal from the brain.
c. Different groups of SCN neurons reach their peak of activity at different times of day.
d. Certain animals that are born without an SCN are inactive throughout the day.
Q:
If suprachiasmatic nucleus neurons are disconnected from the rest of the brain, they:
a. no longer produce any activity.
b. continue to produce activity that follows a circadian rhythm.
c. produce a 20-hour rhythm.
d. produce spontaneous bursts of activity, but on no rhythmic pattern.
Q:
After damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus, the body:
a. cannot generate biological rhythms.
b. still has rhythms in synchrony with environmental patterns of light and dark.
c. still has rhythms, but they are less consistent.
d. still has rhythms, but they can only be reset by artificial light.
Q:
The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the:
a. substantia nigra.
b. caudate nucleus.
c. thalamus.
d. hypothalamus.
Q:
A key area of the hypothalamus, particularly important in the regulation of the biological clock, is the:
a. substantia nigra.
b. caudate nucleus.
c. lateral hypothalamus.
d. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
Q:
The surest way to disrupt the biological clock is to damage the:
a. substantia nigra.
b. caudate nucleus.
c. lateral hypothalamus.
d. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
Q:
What happens after damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus itself?
a. Light no longer resets the biological clock, but the animal continues generating a 24-hour rhythm.
b. Animals' activity patterns become less consistent and no longer respond to light and dark cycles.
c. Animals lose their biological rhythms of temperature, but keep other circadian rhythms.
d. Animals begin to maintain a constant level of activity throughout the 24-hour day.
Q:
When studying disruptions to the biological clock in animals, what did Curt Richter find?
a. Blinding animals strongly disrupted their clock.
b. Rendering animals deaf strongly disrupted their clock.
c. Long periods of forced activity strongly disrupted the clock.
d. The biological clock is insensitive to most forms of interference.
Q:
Research on circadian rhythms has shown that one of the best ways to increase the alertness and efficiency of workers on night shifts is to:
a. expose them to bright lights while they work.
b. keep the environmental temperature constant from night to day.
c. have them eat a big meal before going to sleep.
d. allow them to catnap.