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Psychology
Q:
After a lesion to the lateral preoptic area, a rat would react to an increase in sodium levels by:
a. drinking less and excreting highly concentrated urine.
b. drinking more and excreting a great deal of dilute urine.
c. increasing its activity level without changing the amount it drinks.
d. sweating profusely, but not drinking much.
Q:
An animal knows when to stop drinking by:
a. monitoring CCK levels.
b. how much urine is present in the bladder.
c. detecting how much water is in the stomach.
d. monitoring vasopressin levels.
Q:
The brain can anticipate an osmotic need before the rest of the body actually experiences it:
a. because of the change in blood pressure.
b. because the stomach can detect high levels of sodium.
c. through detection of highly concentrated urine.
d. because of the rate of vasopressin release.
Q:
What area of the brain is largely responsible for detecting osmotic pressure?
a. substantia nigra
b. red nucleus
c. ventromedial hypothalamus
d. OVLT and subfornical organ
Q:
The areas important for detecting osmotic pressure and the salt content of the blood include:
a. substantia nigra.
b. red nucleus.
c. ventromedial hypothalamus.
d. OVLT and subfornical organ.
Q:
The areas around the third ventricle can detect chemicals circulating in the blood because:
a. these areas are not protected by a blood-brain barrier.
b. these areas have low concentrations of solutes themselves.
c. there is so much more blood here than anywhere else in the brain.
d. these cells maintain a higher internal temperature than the rest of the body.
Q:
Specialized neurons for detecting osmotic pressure are found in the brain areas surrounding which structure?
a. third ventricle
b. nucleus dorsalis
c. pituitary gland
d. Hypothalamus
Q:
The brain gets part of its information regarding low osmotic pressure from:
a. receptors around the third ventricle.
b. the blood-brain barrier.
c. the subfornical organ.
d. thalamus.
Q:
What kind of thirst is produced by an increased concentration of solutes in the blood?
a. Postprandial
b. Hypovolemic
c. Non-homeostatic
d. Osmotic
Q:
Eating salty pretzels would most likely result in:
a. a craving for plain water.
b. a greater salt craving.
c. drinking sugary liquids.
d. hypovolemic thirst.
Q:
____ occurs when solutes are more concentrated on one side of the membrane than on the other.
a. Osmoytic thirst
b. Osmotic pressure
c. Hypovolemic thirst
d. Hypovolemic pressure
Q:
What is the cause of osmotic thirst?
a. dryness of the throat
b. the availability of tasty fluids
c. low blood volume
d. increased concentration of solutes in the blood
Q:
What is caused by a high concentration of solutes outside the cells?
a. increase in blood pressure
b. water flows into the cells
c. water flows out of the cells
d. excretion of diluted urine
Q:
The tendency of water to flow across a semipermeable membrane from the area of low solute concentration to the area of higher concentration is termed:
a. hypovolemic pressure.
b. hypovolemic thirst.
c. osmotic pressure.
d. OVLT.
Q:
Eating salty potato chips increases the concentration of sodium in the:
a. extracellular fluid.
b. intracellular fluid.
c. nuclear fluid.
d. osmotic fluid.
Q:
After an increase in the solute concentrations in the body, you will experience:
a. a set point.
b. osmotic thirst.
c. hypovolemic thirst.
d. hunger.
Q:
The two types of thirst are ____ and ____.
a. osmotic thirst; hypervolemic thirst
b. osmotic thirst; hypovolemic thirst
c. hypovolemic thirst; set point thirst
d. vasopressin thirst; osmotic thirst
Q:
Which hormone, released by the posterior pituitary, both raises blood pressure and enables the kidneys to reabsorb water?
a. vasopressin
b. prolactin
c. thymosin
d. ACTH
Q:
Diabetes insipidus literally means "passing without taste" because the urine is produced in such large quantities that it is tasteless. This disease is most likely caused by a problem with the production or release of:
a. renin.
b. vasopressin.
c. angiotensinogen.
d. prostaglandins.
Q:
Vasopressin raises blood pressure by:
a. causing the blood vessels to dilate.
b. constricting the blood vessels.
c. increasing the blood's salt concentration.
d. decreasing the blood's salt concentration.
Q:
What is the hormone released by the posterior pituitary that causes your kidneys to reabsorb and conserve water?
a. antidiuretic hormone
b. insulin
c. luteinizing hormone
d. oxytocin
Q:
Your posterior pituitary is most likely to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH):
a. if you are very thirsty.
b. shortly after drinking a large glass of water.
c. if you are very hungry.
d. shortly after eating a large meal.
Q:
Approximately what percent of the mammalian body is composed of water?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 50%
d. 70%
Q:
In humans, a fever above ____ is life-threatening.
a. 37C (98F)
b. 39C (103F)
c. 41C (109F)
d. 36C (96F)
Q:
A fever:
a. develops independently of the preoptic area.
b. is part of the body's defense against an illness.
c. is an indication that the body is not yet fighting the infection.
d. serves to keep an animal warm during periods of reduced activity.
Q:
If an animal which lacks physiological mechanisms of temperature control gets an infection, it:
a. gets cold instead of feverish.
b. gets hot only at the point where the infection began.
c. chooses a hotter environment.
d. recovers faster than animals that can control body temperature.
Q:
In response to infection, leukocytes release proteins called:
a. leptin.
b. cholecystokinin.
c. cytokines.
d. insulin.
Q:
When bacteria, viruses, fungi, or other intruders invade the body, it mobilizes ____ to attack them.
a. leptin
b. cholecystokinin
c. cytokines
d. leukocytes
Q:
The way that mammals with damage to their preoptic area regulate their body temperature is similar to what other group?
a. birds
b. reptiles
c. normal mammals
d. inanimate objects
Q:
How do adult mammals with damage to the preoptic area regulate their body temperature?
a. physiologically
b. pharmacologically
c. behaviorally
d. not at all
Q:
After damage to the preoptic area, an animal:
a. eats a great deal and gains weight.
b. stops eating.
c. fails to sweat when overheating, but still shivers when cold.
d. fails to shiver and sweat sufficiently.
Q:
Damage to the preoptic area causes an animal to:
a. eat a great deal and gain weight.
b. stop eating.
c. fail to sweat when overheating, but still shiver when cold.
d. fail to shiver and sweat sufficiently.
Q:
A person most likely to shiver when the:
a. skin is cold, but the preoptic area is at normal temperature.
b. temperature difference between the skin and the preoptic area is large.
c. skin and the preoptic area are both hot.
d. skin and the preoptic area are both cold.
Q:
Cells in the preoptic area of the hypothalamus monitor which temperatures?
a. internal organs
b. their own and the skin
c. differences between the arteries and veins
d. differences between internal organs and the skin
Q:
What evidence do we have that the preoptic area controls body temperature?
a. After damage to the preoptic area, an animal will simultaneously sweat and shiver.
b. Each cell in the preoptic area has a temperature at which it is most active.
c. Removed cells maintain a constant temperature even in a cell culture.
d. Heating or cooling the preoptic area leads to sweating or shivering.
Q:
If an experimenter cools the preoptic area of an animal in a warm environment, the animal will:
a. shiver.
b. pant or sweat.
c. move to a colder environment.
d. decrease its preference for salty tastes.
Q:
If an experimenter heats the preoptic area of an animal in a cool environment, the animal will:
a. shiver.
b. pant or sweat.
c. fluff its fur.
d. decrease its preference for salty tastes.
Q:
The POA/AH monitors body temperature partly by monitoring:
a. its own temperature.
b. brain temperature.
c. heart temperature.
d. the temperature of the thalamus.
Q:
Blood vessel constriction, shivering, and sweating are controlled by which area of the brain?
a. pineal body
b. preoptic area of the hypothalamus
c. parietal cortex
d. cerebellum
Q:
The physiological changes that defend body temperature are mainly controlled by the:
a. pineal body and preoptic area.
b. preoptic area and anterior hypothalamus.
c. parietal cortex and hypothalamus.
d. preoptic area and posterior hypothalamus.
Q:
Beyond about 40 or 41C, ___ begin to break their bonds and lose their useful properties.
a. RNA
b. DNA
c. cells
d. proteins
Q:
The temperature required by reproductive cells of birds and most mammals is:
a. higher than the rest of the body.
b. lower than the rest of the body.
c. the same as the internal organs of the body.
d. fluctuating in direct opposition to changes in body temperature.
Q:
What is the benefit of maintaining a body temperature of 37 degrees Celsius?
a. warmer muscles
b. more protein
c. more blood
d. more body water
Q:
Why did mammals evolve a body temperature of 37 degrees Celsius?
a. They benefit from a high temperature because they seldom need to cool themselves by much.
b. Most protein bonds begin to break at this temperature.
c. Their body proteins are stable only at 37 degrees Celsius or above.
d. It is the only way they can detect changes in the temperature of the environment.
Q:
Some insects, frogs and fish survive extreme cold by:
a. generating vast amounts of heat through their blood.
b. stocking their blood with large amounts of glycerol at the start of the winter.
c. allowing ice crystals to expand in their blood vessels and cells.
d. decreasing their surface to volume ratio.
Q:
An advantage of maintaining a constant body temperature is that it:
a. enables an animal to stay equally active at all environmental temperatures.
b. enables an animal to survive on a wider variety of diets.
c. minimizes the energy that must be expended on basal metabolism.
d. enables an animal to detect changes in the temperature of the environment.
Q:
One advantage of being homeothermic is that it:
a. reduces the fuel requirements of the body.
b. prevents excessive reliance on a single sensory system.
c. enables the individual to stay active when the environment is cool.
d. decreases the need for shivering and sweating.
Q:
Which organisms, if any, use behavioral means to regulate their body temperature?
a. poikilothermic, but not homeothermic
b. homeothermic, but not poikilothermic
c. both poikilothermic and homeothermic
d. neither poikilothermic nor homeothermic
Q:
Generating heat is to ____ as radiating heat is to ____.
a. surface area; temperature of the set point
b. total body mass; surface area
c. raising the set point; lowering the set point
d. sweating; shivering
Q:
Homeothermic organisms include:
a. amphibians and reptiles.
b. reptiles and fish.
c. amphibians and fish.
d. mammals and birds.
Q:
How do amphibians and reptiles control their body temperature?
a. they cannot
b. by shivering and sweating
c. by changing the reflectivity of their skin
d. by choosing an appropriate area of the environment
Q:
How do reptiles control their body temperature, if at all?
a. They dilate or constrict blood vessels.
b. They move to different locations in their environment.
c. They shiver and sweat.
d. There is nothing they can do.
Q:
Poikilothermic organisms have body temperatures which:
a. remain relatively constant no matter the change in the external environment.
b. are the same as the temperatures of their environments.
c. are nearly constant, although the brain temperature varies.
d. allow them to survive in very warm climates only.
Q:
Poikilothermic organisms include:
a. humans.
b. most mammals.
c. amphibians and reptiles.
d. all mammals and all fish.
Q:
Humans expend most of their energy on what activity?
a. walking, running, and other forms of locomotion
b. in the beating of their hearts and blood circulation
c. propagating action potentials in the billions of neurons in the nervous system
d. maintaining basal metabolism
Q:
An average young adult expends about ____ kilocalories (kcal) per day.
a. 3,000
b. 2,600
c. 2,000
d. 3,600
Q:
Homeostasis is to ____ as allostasis is to ____.
a. constant, variable
b. variable, constant
c. constant, decreasing
d. variable, increasing
Q:
Some set points may vary considerably over time in order to respond to changes in the environment. This adaptability is known as:
a. homeostasis.
b. allostasis.
c. negative feedback.
d. homeothermic.
Q:
Set points for temperature and body fat:
a. are fixed.
b. change with time of year only.
c. only change due to varying internal conditions.
d. change depending on many conditions.
Q:
A set point refers to:
a. a very narrow range that the body works to maintain at a stable level.
b. the regulation of blood flow.
c. the release of hormones at a set point in time.
d. initiating a change in body temperature at a set point in time.
Q:
When the range maintained by homeostatic processes is very narrow, what is it called?
a. a set point
b. a match point
c. idiopathic
d. band specific
Q:
Much of motivated behavior can be described as:
a. diabetic feedback.
b. negative feedback.
c. positive feedback.
d. homeothermic mechanisms.
Q:
The term ____ refers to temperature regulation and other biological processes that keep body variables within a fixed range.
a. negative feedback
b. positive feedback
c. homeothermic
d. thermostasis
Q:
Processes that reduce any discrepancies from the set point are known as:
a. negative feedback.
b. positive feedback.
c. homeothermic.
d. thermostasis.
Q:
What defines a homeostatic process?
a. the regulation of blood flow
b. any process governed by hormones
c. the maintenance of certain body variables within a fixed range
d. reproduction involving distinct male and female genders in a species
Q:
Large birds, like flamingos, often stand on one leg to:
a. impress the opposite sex.
b. eat.
c. maintain muscle strength.
d. warm the leg that is tucked under their body.
Q:
Bulimia seems to be characterized by an addiction to food.
Q:
Anorexia is a problem of lack of appetite.
Q:
Describe the neuroanatomy of arousal and attention.
Q:
Describe how light resets the SCN.
Q:
Provide three explanations for why we sleep.
Q:
Briefly describe the role of the locus coeruleus in arousal and attention.
Q:
List the stages of sleep including their dominant electrophysiological marker.
Q:
List some examples of "zeitgebers".
Q:
Define the term endogenous circadian rhythm.
Q:
During dreaming, which of the following area or areas continue to be highly active?
a. the hypothalamus, amygdala, and other emotional areas
b. the primary motor cortex in the precentral gyrus
c. the areas of the prefrontal cortex that are key to working memory
d. the primary visual cortex and primary auditory cortex
Q:
Patients with damage to ____ report no dreams.
a. the upper part of the parietal cortex
b. the lower part of the parietal cortex
c. all layers of the occipital lobe
d. the nonvisual areas of the temporal lobe
Q:
Which hypothesis/theory suggests that the primary motor cortex is suppressed so arousal during sleep cannot lead to action?
a. Freud's theory of dreams
b. the repair and restoration theory
c. a clinico-anatomical hypothesis
d. the evolutionary hypothesis
Q:
Dreams begin with arousing stimuli, whether generated from the external or internal environment, according to which hypothesis/theory?
a. Freud's theory of dreams
b. the repair and restoration theory
c. a clinico-anatomical hypothesis
d. the evolutionary theory
Q:
According to the activation-synthesis hypothesis of dreams, a dream represents the brain's effort to:
a. thinking that takes place under unusual conditions
b. make sense of sparse and distorted information
c. predict the future
d. bring up past events