Q&A Hero

Q: Lonnie is responsible for online customer acquisition at a direct marketing firm. His objective is to drive low-cost, high quality traffic to the company's website. Which metric would be the best indicator of how efficiently he spent his online advertising budget? A) unique visitors B) cost per unique visitor C) return visits D) time spent E) page views

Q: ________ is the measure of the number of pages that users have clicked through. A) Unique visitors B) Cost per unique visitor C) Return visits D) Time spent E) Page views

Q: ________ is the measure of the amount of time from the start of the visit until the end of the last activity on the page. A) Unique visitors B) Cost per unique visitor C) Return visits D) Time spent E) Page views

Q: ________ is the measure of average number of times a user returns to the site in a specific period. A) Unique visitors B) Cost per unique visitor C) Return visits D) Time spent E) Page views

Q: ________ is the measure of the total cost of placing the application or ad divided by the number of unique visitors. A) Unique visitors B) Cost per unique visitor C) Return visits D) Time spent E) Page views

Q: ________ is the measure of number of visitors to the website that have accessed the website's content. A) Unique visitors B) Cost per unique visitor C) Return visits D) Time spent E) Page views

Q: Promotions placed on social media employ ________, which are digital tracking devices that enable senders to monitor the receivers' responses precisely and immediately. A) electronic bread crumbs B) demographic tags C) electronic cookies D) QR codes E) UPC codes

Q: Which is the correct order of the steps to design effective social media campaigns? A) produce campaign content; define campaign objectives & strategic approaches; examine platforms and determine which ones to use; examine pricing models and set expenditures needed to achieve objectives; measure campaign effectiveness B) define campaign objectives & strategic approaches; examine platforms and determine which ones to use; produce campaign content; examine pricing models and set expenditures needed to achieve objectives; measure campaign effectiveness C) define campaign objectives & strategic approaches; examine platforms and determine which ones to use; examine pricing models and set expenditures needed to achieve objectives; produce campaign content; measure campaign effectiveness D) define campaign objectives & strategic approaches; examine pricing models and set expenditures needed to achieve objectives; produce campaign content; examine platforms and determine which ones to use; measure campaign effectiveness E) examine pricing models and set expenditures needed to achieve objectives; define campaign objectives & strategic approaches; produce campaign content; examine platforms and determine which ones to use; measure campaign effectiveness

Q: Effective social media advertising is the result of ________. A) systematic planning B) total freedom C) defined character D) quirky novelty E) customer dogmatism

Q: Smobile (in "Smobile Web") stands for ________. A) solar + mobile B) sustainable + mobile C) smooth + mobile D) social + mobile E) self + mobile

Q: The ability for smartphones to communicate with each other wirelessly without Wi-Fi is called ________. A) narrowcasting B) near field communications C) zapping D) stationary communications E) Google Goggles

Q: A creative mobile promotion offered by a restaurant, which gives consumers a live video feed from its kitchen to their mobile phones, is called ________. A) Instagram B) vine voyeurism C) culinary voyeurism D) GPS video E) foodie video

Q: Which capability is identified as the outstanding capability of mobile advertising? A) screen size B) use of geographic locations to deliver contextually relevant offers C) improved use of referrals D) improved use of cookies E) ad creativity

Q: Which of the following is a limitation of mobile advertising for marketers? A) Consumers are reluctant to receive mobile ads. B) Mobile ads help consumers find useful information like referrals. C) Ads can take the entire mobile screen; mobile screens are getting larger. D) Mobile marketers are experimenting with inserting ads in places consumers do not expect to see any. E) Banner ads are inexpensive.

Q: Research indicates that companies with low credibility and poor reputations should create ________ mobile ads. A) humorous B) entertaining C) novel D) serious E) complex

Q: Where are mobile advertisers spending most of their money? A) banner ads B) pop-up ads C) search ads D) sponsorships E) games

Q: Mobile devices provide four types of value to users. ________ value describes the characteristic that mobile devices help consumers feel accepted by others and may impress others. A) Monetary B) Hedonic C) Convenience D) Emotional E) Social

Q: Mobile devices provide four types of value to users. ________ value describes the characteristic that mobile devices make consumers feel good and relaxed when using the device. A) Monetary B) Hedonic C) Convenience D) Emotional E) Social

Q: Mobile devices provide four types of value to users. ________ value describes the characteristic that mobile devices save time and money and make life easier and more efficient. A) Monetary B) Hedonic C) Convenience D) Emotional E) Social

Q: Mobile devices provide four types of value to users. ________ value describes the characteristic that the value consumers receive for the money exceeds the value consumers receive from using non-mobile devices. A) Monetary B) Hedonic C) Convenience D) Emotional E) Social

Q: What is the primary reason for growth of mobile advertising? A) It is novel so marketers are testing it. B) More and more people are using smartphones and other mobile Internet devices. C) Marketers cannot differentiate between mobile advertising and advertising on social media networks. D) Marketing budgets have dramatically increased, so there is extra money to experiment in mobile outlets. E) Consumers think all mobile advertising is credible, regardless of its source.

Q: Mobile advertising accounts for ________ percent of the total advertising spending in the United States and worldwide. A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

Q: How much did the United States spend on mobile advertising in 2012? A) $1.3 billion B) $1.7 billion C) $2.3 billion D) $4.3 billion E) $6.43 billion

Q: Before the recent report that indicates U.S. companies have spent more on mobile advertising than any other country, which country was the leader in mobile advertising? A) Germany B) Switzerland C) India D) Japan E) China

Q: ________ is sending promotional messages to consumers' cell phones, iPads, electronic readers, and other devices that people carry while on the go. A) Social media advertising B) Word-of-mouth advertising C) Outdoor advertising D) Mobile advertising E) Guerrilla advertising

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the most widely used platforms to transmit social messages? A) intranet wikis B) branded blogs and micro-blogs C) social networks D) widgets, games and apps E) mobile phones

Q: If Walmart pays Facebook when a Facebook user clicks on Walmart's ad, Walmart is utilizing ________. A) paid social media B) owned social media C) earned social media D) covert social media E) exclusive social media

Q: ________ consist of messages sent via channels that are not owned by the marketers, who pay for using the channels. A) Paid social media B) Owned social media C) Earned social media D) Covert social media E) Exclusive social media

Q: ________ consist of channels where consumers pass along messages about brand to one another. A) Paid social media B) Owned social media C) Earned social media D) Covert social media E) Exclusive social media

Q: ________ consist of messages sent by marketers and delivered to consumers via channels that the marketers control. A) Paid social media B) Owned social media C) Earned social media D) Covert social media E) Exclusive social media

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of effective social media campaigns? A) Social media campaigns should be completely independent of advertising in social media. B) Social media campaigns should be handled as if they only reach one audience. C) Data mining in social media does not have any benefits. D) Bosses who Tweet personally strengthen the connections between their brands and customers. E) Employees should be allowed to Tweet freely, without any guidelines, on behalf of the company.

Q: Which company used to allow agents to run their own Facebook pages freely, but now employs a mechanism that monitors what agents say on their Facebook pages for compliance? A) Farmers B) Dr. Pepper C) State Farm D) Dell E) McDonald's

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the four kinds of information that is typically requested from social media users? A) basic permissions B) user permissions C) friends permissions D) sensitive information requests E) prominent permissions

Q: ________ are chunks of software installed on one's computer, tablet or smartphone that are gateways to games, online resources, and social networking. A) Cookies B) UPC codes C) Apps D) Viruses E) Blogs

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of social media? A) Profiles let consumers tell others about themselves. B) Friends are trusted members of the social network. C) Groups within social networks help users find people with similar interests. D) Social networks create interactions among group members via discussion boards and content sharing. E) All of the above are elements of social media.

Q: ________ includes means of interactions among people in which they create, share, and exchange information and ideas in virtual communities and networks. A) Social media B) Traditional media C) Retargeting D) Mass media E) Application media

Q: Results to a consumer's search query that appear even though an advertiser is not paying Google for them are called ________ search results. A) sponsored B) nuclear C) fundamental D) organic E) subsidized

Q: Google's most prominent use is ________. A) its search engine B) its web-search ads C) its online display ads D) its mobile ads E) its video ads

Q: What company is the largest provider of data and targeting tools that advertisers need for impression-based targeting, as well as the major supplier of real-time bidding to advertisers seeking impressions among consumers who fit certain criteria? A) Akamai B) Yahoo C) Acxiom D) ChoicePoint E) Google

Q: If a consumer looks up a pair of Cole Haan shoes on Rue La La's website, and then an ad promoting Cole Haan's sale follows her and shows up when she is reading her newsfeed on Facebook, the marketer is engaged in ________. A) segment auctions B) cyberstalking C) segment-based targeting D) data warehousing E) retargeting

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the advantages of impression-based targeting? A) less waste coverage B) the ability for consumers to interact with advertisements C) the ability to gain immediate feedback D) the ability to reach diverse mass audiences who are not part of the target audience E) the ability to eliminate ad skipping and time shifting

Q: In ________, advertisers pre-negotiate prices for advertising space in media whose audiences largely match the profiles of the consumers the advertisers target. A) segment auctions B) impression-based targeting C) segment-based targeting D) data aggregation E) retargeting

Q: ________ is a technique that allows advertisers to reach the right user, in the right place, at the right time and assign an individual value to a particular ad impression. A) Real-time bidding B) Dynamic targeting C) Segment-based targeting D) Data aggregation E) Retargeting

Q: In ________, advertisers specify the criteria of the persons they wish to reach online and then bid in real time for the opportunities to reach such people. A) segment auctions B) impression-based targeting C) segment-based targeting D) data aggregation E) retargeting

Q: HEADACHE MINI CASE: Fast Relief sells a pain killer that is especially effective on relieving headache pain. Under the slogan "If you really want to fix a problem, you have to use the right tools," Fast Relief advertising points out that while its tablets aren't as effective at relieving muscle pain as Cure-All, its leading competitor, clinical trials have shown that Fast Relief is 10 times more effective than Cure-All at relieving headaches. At the beginning of the advertising spot, a woman is shown with her eyes shut tight and her hand pressed against her forehead. Over the course of the ad, the woman's face gradually relaxes and she begins to look relieved and comfortable. Fast Relief also advertises its products by having its tablets used by actors to relieve their headaches during popular television shows. In the HEADACHE MINI CASE, by pointing out that Fast Relief is not very effective at relieving muscle pain, the company is engaging in ________. A) deceptive advertising B) two-sided advertising C) corrective advertising D) comparative advertising E) positive message framing

Q: HEADACHE MINI CASE: Fast Relief sells a pain killer that is especially effective on relieving headache pain. Under the slogan "If you really want to fix a problem, you have to use the right tools," Fast Relief advertising points out that while its tablets aren't as effective at relieving muscle pain as Cure-All, its leading competitor, clinical trials have shown that Fast Relief is 10 times more effective than Cure-All at relieving headaches. At the beginning of the advertising spot, a woman is shown with her eyes shut tight and her hand pressed against her forehead. Over the course of the ad, the woman's face gradually relaxes and she begins to look relieved and comfortable. Fast Relief also advertises its products by having its tablets used by actors to relieve their headaches during popular television shows. In the HEADACHE MINI CASE, the woman shown in the television ad demonstrates that Fast Relief is helping relieve her headache by using ________. A) interpersonal communication B) nonverbal cues C) celebrity endorsement D) corrective communication E) verbal cues

Q: FOOT CREAM MINI CASE: Athlete's Aid is a foot cream designed to prevent athlete's foot with once-daily application after showering. Athlete's Aid advertising features Tom Brown, a well known football player, giving a testimonial on how effectively Athlete's Aid prevents athletes foot and the terrible foot smell associated with it. These television ads are placed at the end of the advertising series immediately before kick-off in a number of important games during the football season, with the ad repeated during the rest of the game. In the FOOT CREAM MINI CASE, the Athlete's Aid commercial is an example of ________ communication. A) formal, interpersonal B) informal, interpersonal C) interactive, interpersonal D) formal, impersonal E) informal, impersonal

Q: FOOT CREAM MINI CASE: Athlete's Aid is a foot cream designed to prevent athlete's foot with once-daily application after showering. Athlete's Aid advertising features Tom Brown, a well known football player, giving a testimonial on how effectively Athlete's Aid prevents athletes foot and the terrible foot smell associated with it. These television ads are placed at the end of the advertising series immediately before kick-off in a number of important games during the football season, with the ad repeated during the rest of the game. In the FOOT CREAM MINI CASE, ________ is the sender of the message. A) Tom Brown B) Tom Brown's football team C) the television stations that air the commercial D) Athlete's Aid E) the National Football Association

Q: FOOT CREAM MINI CASE: Athlete's Aid is a foot cream designed to prevent athlete's foot with once-daily application after showering. Athlete's Aid advertising features Tom Brown, a well known football player, giving a testimonial on how effectively Athlete's Aid prevents athletes foot and the terrible foot smell associated with it. These television ads are placed at the end of the advertising series immediately before kick-off in a number of important games during the football season, with the ad repeated during the rest of the game. In the FOOT CREAM MINI CASE, Athlete's Aid's placement of advertisements at the end of an advertising series is an attempt to take advantage of ________. A) primacy effects B) repetition C) recency effects D) positive message framing E) advertising resonance

Q: FOOT CREAM MINI CASE: Athlete's Aid is a foot cream designed to prevent athlete's foot with once-daily application after showering. Athlete's Aid advertising features Tom Brown, a well known football player, giving a testimonial on how effectively Athlete's Aid prevents athletes foot and the terrible foot smell associated with it. These television ads are placed at the end of the advertising series immediately before kick-off in a number of important games during the football season, with the ad repeated during the rest of the game. In the FOOT CREAM MINI CASE, Athlete's Aid emphasizes the use of its product to prevent athlete's foot. This is an example of ________. A) deceptive advertising B) positive message framing C) corrective advertising D) comparative advertising E) negative message framing

Q: In order to assess whether respondents like a message, understand it correctly, and regard it as effective and persuasive, researchers generally use ________. A) psychological noise B) interpersonal feedback C) perceptual defense D) attitudinal measures E) impersonal messages

Q: Immediate feedback is the factor that makes ________ so effective. A) impersonal messages B) mass marketing C) television advertising D) print advertising E) personal selling

Q: Before launching his ad campaign, Jerry asked a test group of consumers to read the ad copy and report whether they liked the message, understood the message correctly, and regarded the message as effective and persuasive using semantic-differential and Likert scales. This feedback is an example of ________. A) physiological measures B) UPC codes C) attitudinal measures D) day-after recall tests E) net income tests

Q: During testing for the movie Her, test audiences used dials (located in their armrests) to indicate their levels of interest or disinterest during the showing of the movie. This feedback is an example of ________. A) physiological measures B) UPC codes C) attitudinal measures D) day-after recall tests E) net income tests

Q: Which of the following tracks the degree of attention paid to the components of viewed advertisements through monitoring electrical impulses produced by the viewer's brain? A) Facial EMG B) brain wave analysis C) eye-tracking D) attitudinal measures E) UPC codes

Q: ________, which are tied to computerized cash registers, are used to track the sales effects of food and other packaged good advertising. A) Physiological measures B) UPC codes C) Attitudinal measures D) Day-after recall tests E) Net income tests

Q: ________ track bodily responses to stimuli. A) Physiological measures B) UPC codes C) Attitudinal measures D) Day-after recall tests E) Net income tests

Q: Marketers measure their communications' ________, or whether the messages of a given campaign have generated the sales level defined in the campaign's objectives. A) direct effects B) indirect effects C) sales effects D) persuasion effects E) net income effects

Q: Marketers measure their communications' ________, or whether the message was received, understood and interpreted correctly. A) direct effects B) indirect effects C) sales effects D) persuasion effects E) net income effects

Q: Only through ________ can the sender of a message determine whether and how well the message was received. A) creative use of media B) specifically identifying the target market C) feedback D) the sales response E) receivers' facial expressions and body language

Q: During the economic downturn, companies like Chase and Bank of America used advertising appeals to help restore confidence in banks and make people feel good during the down economic times. These were examples of ________. A) fear appeals B) timeliness appeals C) humor appeals D) sexual appeals E) wordplay

Q: The two psychological constructs that impact consumers' responses to ads that depict nudity include ________ and sensation seeking. A) need for cognition B) need for humor C) sexual self schema D) innovativeness E) need for drama

Q: Which of the following is true of sex in advertising? A) Sexual themes in advertising encourage actual consumption behavior. B) More product-related thinking occurs in response to sexual appeals than to nonsexual appeals. C) Sexual appeals enhance message comprehension. D) Visual sexual elements in an ad are more likely to be processed than its verbal content. E) Sexual appeals positively impact the processing of message content.

Q: The personality trait named ________ is focused on a person's tendency to enjoy, engage or seek out amusement. A) need for cognition B) sensation seeking C) dogmatism D) innovativeness E) need for humor

Q: Which of the following is NOT true regarding humor appeals? A) Using humor is more appropriate for low-involvement than high-involvement products. B) Humor is more effective in targeting consumers that already have a positive attitude for the product. C) Lower sensation seekers are more receptive to humor appeals than higher sensation seekers. D) Humor that is relevant to the product is more effective than humor unrelated to the product. E) Humor attracts attention and enhances one's liking of the product advertised.

Q: Which is the most studied advertising appeal? A) comparative appeal B) fear appeal C) humor appeal D) negative frame E) timeliness appeal

Q: A marketer uses ________ to increase the acceptance and persuasiveness of their advertising communications, resulting in their use in an estimated 80% of all ads. A) comparative appeals B) fear appeals C) humor appeals D) negative frames E) timeliness appeals

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the guidelines marketers should follow when using fear appeals? A) understand the target audience's reaction to a fear appeal and its previous experiences B) the boomerang effect C) changing behavior is a long and complex process D) try to achieve high levels of anxiety E) repeat advertising using fear appeals in moderation over the long term

Q: Fear appeals are unlikely to be effective among persons to score high on the personality variable termed ________. A) dogmatism B) promotion-focused C) disgust aversion D) need for cognition E) sensation seeking

Q: Cigarette marketers must use ________ carefully because some research indicates the higher their intensity, the less likely they are to persuade the consumer. A) comparative appeal B) fear appeal C) humor appeal D) negative frame E) timeliness appeal

Q: When Aleve notes that you can take two Aleve caplets all day instead of more Tylenol caplets, it is using a ________. A) comparative appeal B) fear appeal C) humor appeal D) negative frame E) timeliness appeal

Q: A marketer uses a ________ when it claims product superiority for its brand over one or more explicitly named or implicitly identified competitors. A) comparative appeal B) fear appeal C) humor appeal D) negative frame E) timeliness appeal

Q: Consumers with ________ are less likely to consider peripheral cues, such as endorser's likeability, in processing the ad. A) high need for cognition B) low need for cognition C) low involvement D) low need for stimulation E) high need for stimulation

Q: When the material presented first produces a greater effect than material presented later, this is known as the ________. When the material presented last produces a greater effect than material presented earlier, this is known as the ________. A) central route to persuasion; peripheral route to persuasion B) recency effect; primacy effect C) primacy effect; recency effect D) positive message framing; negative message framing E) peripheral route to persuasion; central route to persuasion

Q: If the audience is friendly to the advertiser's products, initially favors the communicator's position, or if it is not likely to hear an opposing argument, then a ________ is most effective. If the audience is critical or unfriendly and well educated, then a ________ is likely to be more effective. A) positive message frame; negative message frame B) two-sided message; one-sided message C) peripheral route to persuasion; central route to persuasion D) negative message frame; positive message frame E) one-sided message; two-sided message

Q: ________ stresses the benefits to be gained by using a specific product, whereas ________ stresses the benefits to be lost by not using the product. A) One-sided messaging; two-sided messaging B) Positive message framing; negative message framing C) The central route to persuasion; the peripheral route to persuasion D) The peripheral route to persuasion; the central route to persuasion E) Negative message framing; positive message framing

Q: Jonas noticed that he got better results from his direct marketing television campaign when his ad appeared first in the series of advertisements. He is likely experiencing the impact of the ________. A) primacy effect B) recency effect C) positive frame D) negative frame E) symbolic effect

Q: A marketer is better off using a one-sided message than a two-sided message when ________. A) the audience is well educated B) the audience is likely to hear opposing claims C) the audience does not initially favor the marketer's message D) the audience favors a competitor E) the audience is friendly/uses the product

Q: Which of the following factors does NOT make a one-sided message more effective than a two-sided message. A) The audience uses the advertiser's products. B) The audience is critical. C) The audience initially favors the communicator's position. D) The audience is not likely to hear an opposing argument. E) All of the above make a one-sided message more effective than a two-sided message.

Q: Josie directs her advertising agency to focus on the benefits of her company's product without mentioning the competition. She is asking for a ________. A) one-sided message B) two-sided message C) positive frame D) negative frame E) vocal cue