Q&A Hero

Q: Who should never use jargon? A) a judge telling a witness how to testify B) a surgeon giving orders to her staff C) a plumber ordering parts from a supply store D) a coach telling a quarterback what play to use

Q: If there is a correlation between test and job performance, one can develop an expectancy chart to illustrate the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically.

Q: When is it strongly recommended that a speaker use language that is highly simplified? A) when both the listener and speaker speak the same language B) when both the listener and speaker speak different languages C) when both the listener and speaker speak English D) when both the listener and speaker speak a language other than English

Q: To use predictive validation, one administers the test to applicants before they are hired. The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are compared to the test scores under development.

Q: When is it acceptable for a speaker to use language that is not simplified? A) when both the listener and speaker have the same language as their native tongue B) when the listener showed no problem in understanding previous messages of similar complexity C) when both the listener and speaker speak English but English is not the first language of either of them D) when both the listener and speaker speak the different languages

Q: Concurrent validation is the most dependable way to validate a selection test.

Q: A listener's summary of a speaker's words shows that the listener correctly understood the speaker's message. Which of the following must be true? A) The speaker used clear, simplified language. B) The listener used active listening. C) The speaker sent a clear message and the listener successfully received the message. D) Either the speaker sent a clear message or the listener was able to interpret an unclear message successfully despite its lack of clarity.

Q: Employers concerned about ethical and EEO violations may purchase employment tests that have been validated.

Q: A listener's summary of a speaker's words shows that the listener did not correctly understand the message. Which of the following must be true? A) The speaker used clear, simplified language. B) The listener failed to use active listening. C) The speaker failed to send a clear message, the listener failed to receive the message properly, or both the speaker and listener failed to communicate properly. D) The speaker sent a clear message, but the listener failed to receive the message properly due to poor listening, jumping to conclusions, or relying on preconceived notions about the speaker.

Q: A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can then measure an array of predictors.

Q: What should a speaker do if her listener's feedback summary of her message is incorrect? A) The speaker should repeat the original message word for word. B) The speaker should summarize the summary. C) The speaker should summarize the original message. D) The speaker should rephrase the message.

Q: There are five steps in the validation process beginning with analyzing the job and concluding with administering the test.

Q: Networked communication capabilities include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) email B) the grapevine C) instant messaging D) electronic data interchange

Q: Organization-person fit is the primary concern of most employers during the selection process.

Q: A manager who is trying to sound conciliatory should make sure that ________. A) her voice is soft B) she smiles when she speaks C) her voice shows no anger D) her voice shows no emotion

Q: Test validity in employment testing is demonstrated through criterion validity and content validity.

Q: During an interview minutes after a tough loss, a soccer coach who is frustrated with calls made by the game's referees should probably do this. A) blame himself for the defeat B) blame the referees for the defeat C) express his anger freely D) take some time to cool down

Q: Content validity is based on showing that the scores on the test are related to job performance.

Q: Emotions can distort communication ________. A) for senders only B) for receivers only C) for both senders and receivers D) only when negative

Q: Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true of active listening? A) It is a skill that most people need to improve. B) Listening demands serious intellectual effort. C) Active listening demands intense concentration. D) Empathy is a barrier to active listening.

Q: An internal comparison estimate measures a test's internal consistency.

Q: Which action best shows a speaker that you are paying close attention? A) avoiding interruptions of the speaker B) avoiding over talking C) direct eye contact D) smooth transitioning from listener to speaker

Q: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

Q: Active listening is enhanced by developing ________ with the speaker. A) apathy B) sympathy C) a personal friendship D) empathy

Q: Tests administered for hiring purposes should be both valid and reasonable if used by a firm that adheres to evidence-based human resources.

Q: This is the primary goal of active listening. A) developing empathy with the speaker B) avoiding premature judgments or interpretations of the speaker's message C) focusing on the speaker D) understanding the full meaning of the speaker's message

Q: EEO laws require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for protected groups.

Q: Because the average listener can comprehend language at a rate that is much higher than speakers can speak, people tend to ________. A) lose focus when listening B) process information at a deep level when they speak C) request additional channels of communication when they listen D) focus better when listening than talking

Q: According to experts known as human lie detectors, which of the following characteristics most likely indicates that a job candidate is being deceptive? A) uncrossed legs B) irregular breathing C) unchanging pupils D) slow verbal responses

Q: The average listener can understand language at a rate that is ________ the average speaker can speak. A) much slower than B) much faster than C) the same rate that D) a little bit slower than

Q: As the HR manager at Johnson Manufacturing, Derek is responsible for deciding which selection tools are most appropriate. When deciding on a specific selection tool, Derek should most likely consider all of the following factors EXCEPT the tool's ________. A) return on investment B) adverse impact C) persistence D) usability

Q: Simplifying language is most important when ________. A) the speaker has little time B) the audience is sympathetic C) the audience is unfamiliar D) the message is simple

Q: Tina is applying for a job as an assembly worker at Honda. As part of the selection procedure, Tina received classroom instruction and was asked to practice assembling windshield wipers onto cars. Tina most likely participated in ________. A) miniature job training and evaluation B) situational judgment tests C) assessment centers D) management games

Q: One particularly effective form of providing feedback is for the receiver to ________. A) raise a hand to show that the message was received B) state "message received" out loud C) restate the message in his or her own words D) send a written message that states "message received"

Q: Applicant tracking systems are mostly used by employers to ________. A) develop work samples B) develop specific job descriptions C) verify a candidate's U.S. citizenship D) screen and rank candidates based on skills

Q: Feedback ________. A) can be spoken, nonverbal, or written B) must be spoken C) must be written D) can be spoken, verbal, or oral

Q: E-Verify is primarily used by employers to ________. A) review an applicant's employment records B) file an applicant's income tax information C) determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S. D) report an applicant's work status to the U.S. government

Q: The purpose of feedback is to determine whether a message was ________. A) received B) received and understood C) worth sending D) verbal or nonverbal

Q: Japanese managers tend to rely on this style of communication. A) formal and written B) formal and unwritten C) informal and verbal D) verbal and formal

Q: Which of the following is most likely true regarding substance abuse screening? A) According to federal law, all employers must test all employees for illegal drugs. B) Some urine sample tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal substances. C) Most employers test potential applicants during the recruitment process. D) Most urine sample tests measure the degree of impairment.

Q: What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims? A) physical exams B) personality tests C) substance abuse screening D) fine motor skills assessments

Q: U.S. managers tend to rely on this style of communication. A) formal and written B) informal and unwritten C) verbal and informal D) verbal and formal

Q: The difference between male and female styles of communication exists ________. A) in every culture B) only in the United States C) only in western cultures D) only in Asian cultures

Q: Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. A) numerology B) reasoning analysis C) handwriting analysis D) polygraph output assessment

Q: Jargon tends to cause problems when it is used ________. A) within a specialized, close-knit group B) as shorthand for technical terms C) outside of a specialized, close-knit group D) in spoken rather than written language

Q: For an employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of theft, an employer must do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) prove that the accused had access to the property B) document a reasonable suspicion prior to requesting a polygraph C) explain the details of the investigation and the questions to be asked during the polygraph D) subject all employees with access to the property in question to the same polygraph examination as the accused employee

Q: Filtering tends to be more prevalent in this kind of organization. A) organic B) highly vertical C) highly horizontal D) non-mechanistic

Q: What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counter productivity? A) paper-and-pencil honesty tests B) interest inventories C) personality tests D) graphology

Q: In which of the following situations is it NOT legal to require an applicant to take a polygraph test as part of the selection process? A) electrical engineer at the Department of Energy B) pharmacist's assistant at Walgreen's C) security guard at Wells Fargo Bank D) cashier at J.C. Penney's

Q: Jargon can be very useful for communication ________. A) within a specialized, close-knit group B) between people who speak different languages C) outside of a specialized, close-knit group D) between males and females

Q: When an auto executive fails to notice an important demographics report in her overstuffed inbox before going to a meeting, she is likely to be suffering from this. A) information overload B) emotion C) filtering D) gender

Q: According to state and federal laws, which of the following actions is NOT required of employers who check background information on applicants? A) disclosing to the applicant that a credit report will be requested B) certifying to the reporting agency of the employer's legal compliance C) providing copies of reports to the applicant if adverse action is considered D) providing a detailed rationale explaining the reason for any adverse action

Q: Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations? A) searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant B) using a database to access information about the applicant's credit history C) locating references other than the ones provided by the applicant D) using a search engine to find information about the applicant

Q: When an auto executive who is upset because his teenage son got suspended from school ends up nixing new design plans for no apparent reason, communication has been distorted by this. A) selective perception B) emotion C) filtering D) gender

Q: Elliot, a manager at Harwood Publishing, gave a bad reference to a former employee. Elliot could most likely be accused of ________ if the information is both false and harmful. A) discrimination B) adverse impact C) arbitration D) defamation

Q: Auto company engineers want technical terms such as limited slip differential used in car ads. Ad execs, on the other hand, don't want these terms used. The cause of their disagreement is ________. A) emotion B) selective perception C) language D) gender

Q: When an auto designer's presentation of a new design shows all of the good features of the design but fails to mention the poor gas mileage that the model will get, she is engaging in this. A) emotion B) selective perception C) information overload D) filtering

Q: Which of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants? A) adhere to legal hiring practices B) limit the number of applicants C) uncover false information D) report criminals to police

Q: According to surveys of HR managers, which of the following is most frequently verified during an employment background investigation? A) age B) references C) credit ratings D) driving records

Q: When an auto industry manager raves about plans for a new car design and fails to see the flaws in the model, he is engaging in this. A) selective perception B) filtering C) emotion D) information overload

Q: Employers most likely conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________. A) age B) marital status C) military service D) disability history

Q: All of the following are barriers to effective interpersonal communication EXCEPT ________. A) filtering B) selective perception C) feedback D) language

Q: Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities? A) aptitude tests B) cognitive ability tests C) work sampling technique D) job knowledge tests

Q: ________ is the deliberate manipulation of information by the sender to make it appear more favorable to the receiver. A) Selective perception B) Information overload C) Jargon D) Filtering

Q: This is the PRIMARY reason for why managers often travel long distances to have a face-to-face meeting with someone. A) It shows respect. B) Most communication is done through body language. C) Other forms of communication have security concerns. D) It communicates a sense of power, rank, and mobility.

Q: Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums? A) structured interviews B) cognitive ability tests C) assessment centers D) work samples

Q: Reading a movie script allows you to perceive ________ forms of communication. A) verbal, body language, and verbal intonation as B) only verbal C) only nonverbal D) both verbal and nonverbal

Q: Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire? A) achievement testing B) work sampling technique C) management assessment center D) miniature job training

Q: Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of ________. A) intelligence tests B) personality tests C) situational tests D) interests inventories

Q: Watching a movie in a foreign language you don't understand without subtitles allows you to perceive ________ forms of communication. A) verbal and body language B) only verbal C) only nonverbal D) both verbal and nonverbal

Q: Listening to a singing performance on the radio allows a listener to perceive ________ forms of communication. A) verbal, body language, and verbal intonation as B) only verbal C) only nonverbal D) both verbal and nonverbal

Q: Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process? A) Development costs are very low. B) Minimal time is required for test administration. C) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process. D) Peers are effectively able to predict the success of applicants.

Q: A live singing performance allows the audience to perceive ________ forms of communication. A) verbal, body language, and verbal intonation as B) only verbal C) only nonverbal D) facial expressions, and verbal intonation as

Q: Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) objective tests B) leaderless group discussions C) motor skills assessments D) individual presentations

Q: A(n) ________ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance. A) work sampling event B) situational judgment test C) management assessment center D) applicant personality test

Q: Verbal intonation is a form of ________. A) verbal communication B) body language C) nonverbal communication D) facial expression

Q: Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique? A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers. B) Employers learn about an applicant's personality. C) Applicants can evaluate their own performance. D) Fine motor skills can be accurately assessed over time.

Q: An example of nonverbal communication is ________. A) an email B) a smile C) a whisper D) a voice mail

Q: With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________. A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm D) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills