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Q:
Fourth-generation languages (4GL) are programming languages that look similar to human languages. For example, a typical 4GL command might state, "FIND ALL RECORDS WHERE NAME IS 'SMITH'."
Q:
An organization must identify what it wants to do and how it is going to do it. What does the "how" part of this question focus on?
A. justification of the project
B. definition of the project
C. analysis of project risks
D. expected results of the project
Q:
Scripting languages group data and corresponding processes into objects.
Q:
What is the most important part of the project plan?
A. Gantt chart
B. specification
C. communication
D. None of these are correct.
Q:
Object-oriented languages provide a programming method that provides for interactive modules to a website.
Q:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a well-defined project plan?
A. prepared by the project manager
B. easy to read
C. appropriate to the projects size
D. communicated to all key participants
Q:
Control objects for information and related technology (COBIT) is a set of best practices that helps an organization to maximize the benefits of an information system, while at the same time establishing appropriate controls to ensure minimum errors.
Q:
What do SMART criteria for successful objective creation include?
A. specific, metrics, agreed upon, real, time valued
B. specific, measurable, agreed upon, realistic, time framed
C. specific, measurable, accurate, real, time valued
D. specific, metrics, agreed upon, realistic, time framed
Q:
Software engineers use computer-aided software engineering (CASE) software tools, which provide automated support for the development of the system.
Q:
What are project objectives?
A. quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success
B. products, services, or processes that are not specifically a part of the project
C. any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project
D. a definition of the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions
Q:
Software engineering is a disciplined approach for constructing information systems through the use of common methods, techniques, or tools.
Q:
What is project scope?
A. quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success
B. products, services, or processes that are not specifically a part of the project
C. any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project
D. defines the work that must be completed to deliver a product with the specified features and functions
Q:
The testing phase takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforms them into the actual system.
Q:
An organization must identify what it wants to do and how it is going to do it. What does the "what" part of this question focus on?
A. justification of the project
B. definition of the project
C. expected results of the project
D. All of these are correct.
Q:
The design phase establishes descriptions of the desired features and operations of the system including screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, and other documentation.
Q:
What are project assumptions?
A. specific factors that can limit options
B. factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration
C. quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success
D. a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities
Q:
The analysis phase establishes descriptions of the desired features and operations of the system including screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, and other documentation.
Q:
What are project constraints?
A. specific factors that can limit options
B. factors that are considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration
C. quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success
D. a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities
Q:
The implementation phase involves taking all of the detailed design documents from the design phase and transforming them into the actual system.
Q:
What is a status report?
A. difficult to quantify or measure
B. easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project
C. the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system
D. periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance
Q:
Control objects for information and related technology (COBIT) are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development.
Q:
What defines all project roles and indicates what responsibilities are associated with each role?
A. communication plan
B. responsibility matrix
C. project assumptions
D. project deliverable
Q:
Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools are software suites that automate systems analysis, design, and development.
Q:
Who are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion?
A. project stakeholders
B. project managers
C. project planners
D. project testers
Q:
Process modeling illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system.
Q:
What statement links the project to the organizations overall business goals?
A. project milestones
B. project objectives
C. project scope statement
D. project deliverable
Q:
A data flow diagram involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment.
Q:
What defines the specifications for product/output of the project and is key for managing expectations, controlling scope, and completing other planning efforts?
A. project milestones
B. project objectives
C. project requirements document
D. project deliverable
Q:
A data flow diagram (DFD) illustrates the movement of information between external entities and the processes and data stores within the system.
Q:
What are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the project to be considered a success?
A. project milestones
B. project objectives
C. project assumptions
D. project deliverable
Q:
Process modeling involves graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information between a system and its environment.
Q:
What represents key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed?
A. project milestones
B. project objectives
C. project assumptions
D. project deliverable
Q:
Sign-off is the users' actual signatures indicating they approve all of the business requirements.
Q:
What is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project?
A. project milestones
B. project objectives
C. project assumptions
D. project deliverable
Q:
A requirements definition document prioritizes all of the business requirements by order of importance to the company.
Q:
What are specific factors that can limit options including budget, delivery dates, available skilled resources, and organizational policies?
A. project objectives
B. project constraints
C. project assumptions
D. project deliverable
Q:
Projects are typically dynamic in nature, and change should be expected and anticipated for successful project completion.
Q:
What are factors considered to be true, real, or certain without proof or demonstration?
A. project plan
B. project constraints
C. project assumptions
D. project deliverable
Q:
Requirements management is the process of managing changes to the business requirements throughout the project.
Q:
What defines the how, what, when, and who regarding the flow of project information to stakeholders and is key for managing expectations?
A. communication plan
B. executive sponsor
C. project assumptions
D. project deliverable
Q:
A joint application development session is where employees meet, sometimes for several days, to define or review the business requirements for the system.
Q:
Who is the person or group who provides the financial resources for the project?
A. project manager
B. project stakeholders
C. executive sponsor
D. communication plan
Q:
Business requirements are the specific business requests the system must meet to be successful, so the analysis phase is critical because business requirements drive the entire systems development effort.
Q:
Who are individuals and organizations actively involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as a result of project execution or project completion?
A. project manager
B. project stakeholders
C. executive sponsor
D. All of these are correct.
Q:
Brainstorming is a technique for generating ideas by encouraging participants to offer as many ideas as possible in a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have been exhausted.
Q:
What is an internal department that oversees all organizational projects?
A. project deliverables
B. project scope
C. project management office
D. project milestones
Q:
Conversion occurs when a person or event is the catalyst for implementing major changes for a system to meet business changes.
Q:
What are project deliverables?
A. a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
B. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed stakeholder needs and expectations from a project
C. any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of a project
D. represent key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed
Q:
Preventing liabilities is a business-related consequence of failed software.
Q:
What are the three primary variables (or triple constraints) in any project?
A. time, cost, expense
B. time, expense, requirements
C. time, cost, scope
D. time, cost, quality
Q:
The planning phase establishes a high-level plan of the intended project and determines project goals.
Q:
Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful project?
A. delivered on time
B. delivered within budget
C. meets the businesss requirements
D. All of these are correct.
Q:
The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is the overall process for developing information systems, from planning and analysis through implementation and maintenance.
Q:
What is the number one reason that IT projects fall behind schedule or fail?
A. change in business goals during the project
B. lack of support from business management
C. unclear or missing business requirements
D. change in technology during the project
Q:
Off-the-shelf application software supports general business processes and does not require any specific software customization to meet the organization's needs.
Q:
What measures how well a solution can be implemented within existing legal and contractual obligations?
A. political feasibility
B. operational feasibility
C. schedule feasibility
D. legal feasibility
Q:
Conversion modifies software to meet specific user or business requirements.
Q:
What measures how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity?
A. political feasibility
B. operational feasibility
C. schedule feasibility
D. legal feasibility
Q:
Business requirements include the process of transferring information from a legacy system to a new system.
Q:
Which of the following are intangible benefits?
A. improved decision making
B. decreased expenses
C. decreased response time
D. increased quantity or sales
Q:
What measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise?
A. economic feasibility
B. operational feasibility
C. schedule feasibility
D. technical feasibility
Q:
Which of the following are tangible benefits?
A. improved decision making
B. improved community service
C. improved goodwill
D. increased quantity or sales
Q:
What measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time?
A. economic feasibility
B. operational feasibility
C. schedule feasibility
D. technical feasibility
Q:
What measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities?
A. economic feasibility
B. operational feasibility
C. schedule feasibility
D. technical feasibility
Q:
What measures the cost-effectiveness of a project?
A. economic feasibility
B. operational feasibility
C. schedule feasibility
D. technical feasibility
Q:
What is legal feasibility?
A. measures how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity
B. measures how well a solution can be implemented within existing legal and contractual obligations
C. measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D. measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
Q:
What is political feasibility?
A. measures how well the solution will be accepted in a given opportunity
B. measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities
C. measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D. measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
Q:
What is technical feasibility?
A. measures the cost-effectiveness of a project
B. measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities
C. measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D. measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
Q:
What is schedule feasibility?
A. measures the cost-effectiveness of a project
B. measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities
C. measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D. measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
Q:
What is operational feasibility?
A. measures the cost-effectiveness of a project
B. measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities
C. measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D. measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
Q:
What is economic feasibility?
A. measures the cost-effectiveness of a project
B. measures how well a solution meets the identified system requirements to solve the problems and take advantage of opportunities
C. measures the project time frame to ensure that it can be completed on time
D. measures the practicality of a technical solution and the availability of technical resources and expertise
Q:
What is feasibility?
A. difficult to quantify or measure
B. easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project
C. the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system
D. periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance
Q:
What are tangible benefits?
A. difficult to quantify or measure
B. easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project
C. the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system
D. periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance
Q:
What are intangible benefits?
A. difficult to quantify or measure
B. easy to quantify and typically measured to determine the success or failure of a project
C. the measure of the tangible and intangible benefits of an information system
D. periodic reviews of actual performance versus expected performance
Q:
What is a markup language for documents, containing structured information?
A. service-oriented architecture
B. service
C. extensible markup language
D. interoperability
Q:
What is the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers?
A. service-oriented architecture
B. service
C. loose coupling
D. interoperability
Q:
What is the capability of services to be joined together on demand to create composite services, or disassembled just as easily into their functional component?
A. service-oriented architecture
B. service
C. loose coupling
D. interoperability
Q:
What is interoperability?
A. a business-driven enterprise architecture that supports integrating a business as linked, repeatable activities, tasks, or services
B. a business task
C. the capability of services to be joined together on demand to create composite services, or disassembled just as easily into their functional component
D. the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers
Q:
What is loose coupling?
A. a business-driven enterprise architecture that supports integrating a business as linked, repeatable activities, tasks, or services
B. a business task
C. the capability of services to be joined together on demand to create composite services, or disassembled just as easily into their functional component
D. the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers
Q:
What is a service?
A. a business-driven enterprise architecture that supports integrating a business as linked, repeatable activities, tasks, or services
B. a business task
C. the capability of services to be joined together on demand to create composite services, or disassembled just as easily into their functional component
D. the capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources, even though they are made by different manufacturers