Q&A Hero

Q: In which of the following instances are industry members not subject to stronger competitive pressures from substitute products? A. The costs to buyers of switching over to the substitutes are low B. Buyers are dubious about using substitutes C. The quality and performance of the substitutes is well matched to what buyers need to meet their requirements D. Buyer brand loyalty is weak E. Substitutes are readily available at competitive prices

Q: Which of the following is not a good example of a substitute product that triggers stronger competitive pressures? A. Artificial sweetener as a substitute for sugar B. Wireless phone service as a substitute for a landline telephone C. Coca-Cola as a substitute for Pepsi D. Digital cameras as substitutes for film cameras E. Video-on-demand services as a substitute for renting movies from a movie rental store

Q: Just how strong the competitive pressures are from substitute products depends on A. whether the available substitutes are strongly or weakly differentiated and whether buyers make purchases frequently or infrequently. B. whether attractively priced substitutes are readily available and the ease with which buyers can switch to substitutes. C. whether the available substitutes are products or services. D. whether the producers of substitutes have ample budgets for new product R&D. E. the speed with which buyer needs and expectations are changing.

Q: The competitive pressures from substitute products tend to be stronger when A. buyers are relatively comfortable with the quality and performance of substitutes and the costs to buyers of switching over to the substitutes are low. B. there are more than 10 sellers of substitute products. C. substitutes exhibit the latest in technological innovation. D. buyers have high psychic costs in severing existing brand relationships and establishing new ones. E. demand for the industry's product is not very price sensitive.

Q: Which of the following factors is not a relevant consideration in judging whether buyer bargaining power is relatively strong or relatively weak? A. Whether the number of buyers is small or if a customer is particularly important to the seller B. Whether buyers are relatively well informed about sellers' products, prices, and costs C. Whether buyer needs and expectations are changing rapidly or slowly D. Whether buyer demand is weak or strong and rapidly growing E. Whether buyers pose a credible threat of integrating backward into the business of sellers

Q: In which of the following circumstances are competitive pressures associated with the bargaining power of buyers not relatively strong? A. When buyer demand is growing rapidly B. When buyers are relatively well informed about sellers' products, prices, and costs C. When buyers pose a major threat to integrate backward into the product market of sellers D. When sellers' products are weakly differentiated, making it easy for buyers to switch to competing brands E. When buyers have considerable discretion over whether and when they purchase the product

Q: Which of the following is not a factor that causes buyer bargaining power to be stronger? A. Some buyers are a threat to integrate backward into the business of sellers B. The industry is composed of a few large sellers and the customer group consists of numerous buyers that purchase in fairly small quantities C. Buyers have considerable discretion over whether and when they purchase the product D. Buyers are well informed about sellers' products, prices, and costs E. The costs incurred by buyers in switching to competing brands or to substitute products are relatively low

Q: Which of the following conditions acts to weaken buyer bargaining power? A. When buyers are unlikely to integrate backward into the business of sellers B. When buyers are well informed about sellers' products, prices, and costs C. When the costs incurred by buyers in switching to competing brands or to substitute products are relatively low D. When buyers have the ability to postpone purchases if they don't like the prices offered by sellers E. When buyers are few in number and/or often purchase in large quantities

Q: Competitive pressures stemming from buyer bargaining power tend to be weaker when A. the number of buyers is small, such that each customer's business tends to be particularly important to a seller. B. buyer demand is growing slowly or maybe even declining. C. the costs incurred by buyers in switching to competing brands or to substitute products are relatively high. D. buyers are well informed about sellers' products, prices, and costs. E. the buyer group consists of a few large buyers and the seller group consists of numerous small firms.

Q: Whether buyer bargaining power poses a strong or weak source of competitive pressure on industry members depends in part on A. whether most buyers possess roughly equal or varying degrees of bargaining power. B. how many buyers are engaged in collaborative partnerships with sellers. C. whether entry barriers are high or low. D. whether the overall quality of the items being furnished by industry members is rising or falling. E. whether buyer demand is strong or declining.

Q: Which of the following is not one of the five typical sources of competitive pressures? A. The power and influence of industry driving forces B. The bargaining power of suppliers and seller-supplier collaboration C. The threat of new entrants into the market D. The attempts of companies in other industries to win customers over to their own substitute products E. The market maneuvering and jockeying for buyer patronage that goes on among rival sellers in the industry

Q: The nature and strength of the competitive forces that prevail in an industry is generally a joint product of the A. pressures associated with rivalry among sellers to attract buyer patronage. B. threat that firms outside the industry will decide to enter the market. C. attempts of companies in other industries to win buyers over to their own substitute products. D. competitive pressures stemming from the bargaining power of both suppliers and buyers. E. All of these.

Q: The state of competition in an industry is a function of A. the competitive pressures associated with rivalry among competing sellers to attract customers. B. competitive pressures coming from the attempts of companies in other industries attempting to win buyers over to their substitute products. C. competitive pressures associated with the threat of new entrants into the marketplace. D. competitive pressures associated with the bargaining power of suppliers and customers. E. All of these

Q: Which of the following is not a relevant consideration in identifying an industry's dominant economic features? A. Market size and growth rate, the geographic scope of competitive rivalry, and demand-supply conditions B. How many strategic groups the industry has and which ones are most profitable and least profitable C. The number and sizes of buyers, the number of rivals, and the pace of product innovation D. The pace of technological change E. The current industry position in its life cycle to reveal the industry's growth prospects

Q: Which of the following is not a factor to consider in identifying an industry's dominant economic features? A. The market size, growth rate and prospects B. The scope of competitive rivalry including geographic area C. The market demand-supply conditions D. How strong driving forces and competitive forces are E. The role and pace of technological change

Q: Thinking strategically about industry and competitive conditions in a given industry involves evaluating such considerations as A. cultural, lifestyle, and demographic changes. B. the birth of new industries, new knowledge, and disruptive technologies. C. weather, climate change, and water shortages. D. interest rates, exchange rates, unemployment rates, inflation rates, and economic growth. E. how often sellers alter their prices, how sensitive buyers are to price differences among sellers, whether the item being purchased is a good or a service, and whether buyers buy frequently or infrequently.

Q: Which of the following is not a major question to ask in thinking strategically about industry and competitive conditions in a given industry? A. How many companies in the industry have good track records for revenue growth and profitability? B. What strategic moves are rivals likely to make next? C. What are the key factors for future competitive success? D. Does the outlook for the industry offer good prospects for profitability? E. What forces are driving changes in the industry, and what impact will these changes have on competitive intensity and industry profitability?

Q: Which one of the following is not part of a company's broad macro-environment? A. conditions in the economy at large. B. population demographics and societal values and lifestyles. C. technological and ecological factors. D. governmental regulations and legislation. E. the company's resource strengths, resource weaknesses, and competitive capabilities.

Q: A company's broad "macro-environment" refers to A. the industry and competitive arena in which the company operates. B. general economic conditions plus the factors driving change in the markets being served. C. all the strategically significant forces and factors outside a company's boundaries general economic conditions, population demographics, societal values and lifestyles, technological factors, and governmental legislation and regulation. D. the competitive market environment that exists between a company and its competitors. E. the dominant economic features of a company's industry.

Q: Identify and briefly discuss at least three obligations of a company's board of directors in corporate governance and the strategy-making, strategy-executing process.

Q: A single-business company has three levels of strategy. Name and describe each level.

Q: What are the two types of objectives included in the balanced scorecard? Define and provide five examples of each.

Q: What is the difference between a mission statement and a strategic vision?

Q: Explain why an organization needs a strategic vision. What purpose does a strategic vision serve?

Q: Define and briefly explain what is meant by each of the following terms: a) Strategic inflection point b) Strategic vision c) Strategic objective d) Strategic plan e) Balanced scorecard

Q: What are the five stages of the strategy-making, strategy-executing process and what does each one involve?

Q: Which one of the following is not among the chief duties/responsibilities of a company's board of directors insofar as the strategy-making, strategy-executing process is concerned? A. Hiring and firing senior-level executives and working with the company's chief strategic planning officer to improve the company's performance B. Being inquiring critics and exercising strong oversight over the company's direction, strategy, and business approaches C. Evaluating the caliber of senior executives' strategy-making/strategy-executing skills D. Instituting a compensation plan for top executives that rewards them for actions and results that serve stakeholders' interests, and most especially those of shareholders E. Overseeing the company's financial accounting and financial reporting practices

Q: The obligations of an investor-owned company's board of directors in the strategy-making, strategy-executing process include A. coming up with compelling strategy proposals to debate against those put forward by top management. B. taking the lead in formulating the company's strategic plan but then delegating the task of implementing and executing the strategic plan to the company's CEO and other senior executives. C. taking the lead in developing the company's business model and strategic vision. D. overseeing the company's financial accounting and financial reporting practices and evaluating the caliber of senior executives' strategy-making/strategy-executing skills. E. approving the company's operating strategies, functional-area strategies, business strategy, and overall corporate strategy.

Q: The primary roles/obligations of a company's board of directors in the strategy-making, strategy-executing process include A. playing the lead role in forming the company's strategy and then directly supervising the efforts and actions of senior executives in implementing and executing the strategy. B. providing guidance and counsel to the CEO in carrying out his/her duties as chief strategist and chief strategy implementer. C. overseeing the company's financial accounting and reporting practices, evaluating the caliber of senior executives' strategy-making and strategy-executing skills, and instituting a compensation plan that rewards top executives for results that serve shareholder interests. D. working closely with the CEO, senior executives, and the strategic planning staff to develop a strategic plan for the company. E. reviewing and approving the company's business model and also reviewing and approving the proposals and recommendations of the CEO as to how to execute the business model.

Q: Proficient strategy execution A. is always the product of much organizational learning. B. is achieved unevenly, coming quickly in some areas and more slowly in others. C. entails vigilantly searching for ways to improve performance. D. is an ongoing process, not an every-now-and-then task. E. All of these.

Q: A company's direction, objectives, and strategy A. have to be revisited any time internal conditions warrant. B. are never final as it is an ongoing process. C. are not a now-and-then task. D. have to be revisited whenever a firm encounters disruptive changes in its environment. E. All of these

Q: Management is obligated to monitor new external developments, evaluate the company's progress, and make corrective adjustments in order to A. determine whether the company has a balanced scorecard for judging its performance. B. decide whether to continue or change the company's strategic vision, objectives, strategy and/or strategy execution methods. C. determine what changes should be made to its customer value proposition. D. determine whether the company's business model is well matched to changing market and competitive circumstances. E. stay on track in achieving the company's mission and strategic vision.

Q: Which of the following is not among the principal managerial tasks associated with managing the strategy execution process? A. Ensuring that policies and procedures facilitate rather than impede effective execution B. Creating a company culture and work climate conducive to successful strategy implementation and execution C. Surveying employees on how employee job satisfaction can be improved D. Exerting the internal leadership needed to drive implementation forward E. Tying rewards and incentives directly to the achievement of performance objectives

Q: Operating strategies concern A. what the firm's operating departments are doing to unify the company's functional and business strategies. B. the specific plans for building competitive advantage in each major department and operating unit. C. the relatively narrow strategic initiatives and approaches for managing key operating units within a business and for performing strategically significant operating tasks. D. how best to carry out the company's corporate strategy. E. how best to implement and execute the company's different business-level strategies.

Q: Functional strategies A. unify the company's various operating-level strategies. B. specify how to build and strengthen the skills, expertise, and competencies needed to execute operating-level strategies successfully. C. support and add power to the corporate-level strategy. D. add detail to the company's business-level strategy and specify what resources are needed to put the strategy into action.
 E. create the chief elements of the company's strategy map.

Q: Functional strategies A. specify what actions a company should take to resolve specific strategic issues and problems. B. concerns the actions, approaches, and practices related to particular functions or processes within a business. C. are concerned with how to unify the firm's several different operating strategies into a cohesive whole. D. are normally crafted by the company's CEO and other senior executives. E. None of these.

Q: In a single-business company, the strategy-making hierarchy consists of A. business strategy, divisional strategies, and departmental strategies. B. business strategy, functional strategies, and operating strategies. C. business strategy and operating strategy. D. managerial strategy, business strategy, and divisional strategies. E. corporate strategy, divisional strategies, and departmental strategies.

Q: Business strategy concerns A. strengthening the company's market position and building competitive advantage. B. ensuring consistency in strategic approach among the businesses of a diversified company. C. selecting a business model to use in pursuing business objectives. D. selecting a set of financial and strategic objectives for a particular line of business. E. choosing appropriate internal business processes for a specific line of business.

Q: Corporate strategy A. is primarily concerned with strengthening a company's market position and building competitive advantage. B. is subject to being changed much less frequently than either a company's objectives or its mission statement. C. should be based on a flexible strategic vision and mission. D. ensures consistency in strategic approach among businesses of a diversified, multibusiness corporation. E. determines balanced scorecard financial and strategic objectives.

Q: Crafting strategy requires A. a collaborative effort that includes managers in various position at various organizational levels. B. executive management involvement only. C. participation by all employees.
 D. a collaborative effort between the CEO and board members only. E. All of these.

Q: The task of stitching together a strategy A. entails addressing a series of hows: how to grow the business, how to please customers, how to outcompete rivals, how to respond to changing market conditions, and how to achieve strategic and financial objectives. B. is primarily an exercise in deciding which of several freshly emerging market opportunities to pursue. C. is mainly an exercise that should be dictated by what is comfortable to management from a risk perspective and what is acceptable in terms of capital requirements. D. requires trying to copy the strategies of industry leaders as closely as possible. E. is mainly an exercise in good planning.

Q: A company needs performance targets or objectives A. for its operations as a whole and also for each of its separate businesses, product lines, functional departments, and individual work units. B. because they provide parameters for the company's strategy map. C. in order to unify the company's strategic vision and business model. D. to help guide managers in deciding what strategic path to take in the event that a strategic inflection point is encountered. E. in order to prevent lower-level organizational units from establishing their own objectives.

Q: Company objectives A. are needed only on a companywide basis related to a company's short-term and long-term profitability. B. need to be broken down into performance targets for each of its separate businesses, product lines, functional departments, and individual work units. C. play the important role of establishing the direction in which it needs to be headed. D. are important because they help guide managers in deciding what the company's strategy map should look like. E. should be set in a manner that does not conflict with the performance targets of lower-level organizational units.

Q: Why should long-run objectives take precedence over short-run objectives? A. Focus is placed on improving performance in the near term. B. Long-run objectives are necessary for achieving long-term performance and stand as a barrier to undue focus on short-term results. C. This will satisfy shareholder expectations for progress. D. This will force the company to deliver performance improvement in the current period. E. None of these.

Q: A balanced scorecard that includes both strategic and financial performance targets is a conceptually strong approach for judging a company's overall performance because A. financial performance measures are lagging indicators that reflect the results of past decisions and organizational activities whereas strategic performance measures are leading indicators of a company's future financial performance. B. it entails putting equal emphasis on good strategy execution and good business model execution. C. a balanced scorecard approach pushes managers to avoid setting objectives that reflect the results of past decisions and organizational activities and, instead, to set objectives that will serve as leading indicators of a company's future financial performance. D. it assists managers in putting roughly equal emphasis on short-term and long-term performance targets. E. it more or less forces managers to put equal emphasis on financial and strategic objectives.

Q: A balanced scorecard for measuring company performance A. entails putting equal emphasis on financial and strategic objectives. B. entails striking a balance between financial objectives and strategic objectives. C. balances the drive for profits with social responsibility obligations. D. prevents the drive for achieving strategic objectives from overwhelming the pursuit of financial objectives. E. entails creating a set of financial objectives balanced among profitability measures and liquidity measures.

Q: Strategic objectives A. are more essential in achieving a company's strategic vision than are financial objectives. B. are generally less important than financial objectives. C. are more difficult to achieve and harder to measure than financial objectives. D. relate to strengthening a company's overall market standing and competitive vitality. E. help managers track an organization's true progress better than do financial objectives.

Q: A company needs financial objectives A. to overtake key competitors on such important measures as net profit margins and return on investment. B. because without adequate profitability and financial strength, the company's ultimate survival is jeopardized. C. to indicate to employees that financial objectives always take precedence over strategic objectives. D. to convince shareholders that top management is acting in their interests. E. to translate the company's business model into action items.

Q: The managerial purpose of setting objectives includes A. converting the strategic vision into specific performance targets. B. using the objectives as yardsticks for tracking the company's progress and performance. C. challenging the organization to perform at its full potential and deliver the best possible results. D. establishing deadlines for achieving performance results. E. All of these.

Q: A company's values relate to such things as A. how it will balance its pursuit of financial objectives against the pursuit of its strategic objectives. B. how it will balance the pursuit of its business purpose/mission against the pursuit of its strategic vision. C. fair treatment, integrity, ethical behavior, innovativeness, teamwork, top-notch quality, superior customer service, social responsibility, and community citizenship. D. whether it will emphasize stock price appreciation or higher dividend payments to shareholders, and whether it will put more emphasis on the achievement of short-term performance targets or long-range performance targets. E. All of these

Q: A company's values concern A. whether and to what extent it intends to operate in an ethical and socially responsible manner. B. how aggressively it will seek to maximize profits and enforce high ethical standards. C. the beliefs and operating principles built into the company's "balanced scorecard" for measuring performance. D. the beliefs, traits, and behavioral norms that company personnel are expected to display in conducting the company's business and pursuing its strategic vision and mission. E. the beliefs, principles, and ethical standards that are incorporated into the company's strategic intent and business model.

Q: The difference between the concept of a company mission statement and the concept of a strategic vision is that A. a mission statement typically concerns a company's present business scope ("who we are and what we do") whereas the principal concern of a strategic vision is with the company's future business scope (long term direction and future product-customer-market-technology focus). B. the mission is to make a profit, whereas a strategic vision concerns how to attract customers. C. a mission statement deals with what to accomplish on behalf of shareholders and a strategic vision concerns what to accomplish on behalf of customers. D. a mission concerns what to do to achieve short-run objectives and a strategic vision concerns what to do to achieve long-run performance targets. E. a mission statement deals with "where we are headed" whereas a strategic vision provides the critical answer to "how will we get there."

Q: A company's mission statement should be sufficiently descriptive and include which of the following? 
 A. Identify the company's services and products to give the company its own identity B. Relate to the buyer's needs that the company seeks to satisfy C. Identify the customer or market that the company intends to serve D. Specify the approach taken by the company to satisfy its customer's needs E. All of these

Q: A company's mission statement typically addresses which of the following questions? A. Who we are? what we do? and why we are here? B. What objectives and level of performance do we want to achieve? C. Where are we going and what should our strategy be? D. What approach should we take to achieve sustainable competitive advantage? E. What business model should we employ to achieve our objectives and our vision?

Q: The benefit of a vivid, engaging, and convincing strategic vision is A. its ability to crystallize top management's own view about the company's long-term direction. B. it reduces the risk of rudderless decision making by managers at all levels of the organization. C. it helps an organization prepare for the future. D. its ability to unite company personnel behind managerial efforts to get the company moving in the intended direction. E. All of these are important benefits of an effective strategic vision.

Q: Effectively communicating the strategic vision down the line to lower-level managers and employees has the value of A. not only explaining "where we are going and why" but, more importantly, also inspiring and energizing company personnel to unite to get the company moving in the intended direction. B. helping company personnel understand why "making a profit" is so important. C. making it easier for top executives to set strategic objectives. D. helping lower-level managers and employees better understand the company's business model. E. All of these.

Q: Which of the following are common shortcomings of company vision statements? A. Too broad, vague or incomplete, bland/uninspiring, not distinctive, and too reliant on superlatives B. Unrealistic, unconventional, and unbusinesslike C. Too specific, too inflexible, and can't be achieved in five years D. Too broad, too narrow, and too risky E. Not customer-driven, out-of-step with emerging technological trends, and too ambitious

Q: Which of the following is not a common shortcoming of company vision statements? A. Vague or incompleteshort on specifics B. Focused and narrowexclusive to a specific direction C. Bland or uninspiring D. Not distinctivecould apply to most any company (or at least several others in the same industry) E. Too reliant on superlatives (best, most successful, recognized leader, global or worldwide leader, first choice of customers)

Q: Which one of the following is not a characteristic of an effectively worded strategic vision statement? A. Directional (is forward-looking, describes the strategic course that management has charted and the kinds of product-market-customer-technology changes that will help the company prepare for the future) B. Easy to communicate (is explainable in 10 to 15 minutes, can be reduced to a memorable slogan) C. Graphic (paints a picture of the kind of company management is trying to create and the market position or positions the company is striving to stake out) D. Consensus-driven (commits the company to a "mainstream" directional path that most all stakeholders will enthusiastically support) E. Focused (is specific enough to provide guidance to managers in making decisions and allocating resources)

Q: Which of the following are characteristics of an effectively worded strategic vision statement? A. Graphic, directional, and focused B. Challenging, competitive, and "set in concrete" C. Balanced, responsible, and rational D. Realistic, customer-focused, and market-driven E. Achievable, profitable, and ethical

Q: Well-conceived visions are A. distinctive.
 B. specific to a particular organization. C. free of generic, feel-good statements. D. not innocuous one-sentence statements. E. All of these.

Q: Which one of the following is not an accurate attribute of an organization's strategic vision? A. A clearly articulated view of "where we are going" B. Describing the company's future product-customer-market-technology focus C. Pointing an organization in a particular direction and charting a strategic path for it to follow D. Providing managers with a reference point for making strategic decisions E. Outlining how the company intends to implement and execute its business model

Q: Top management's views about where the company is headed and what its future product-customer-market-technology will be A. indicates what kind of business model the company is going to have in the future. B. constitutes the strategic vision for the company. C. signals what the firm's strategy will be. D. serves to define the company's mission. E. indicates what the company's long-term strategic plan is.

Q: Management's strategic vision for an organization A. charts a strategic course for the organization ("where we are going") and outlines the company's future product-customer-market-technology focus. B. describes in fairly specific terms the organization's business model, strategic objectives, and strategy. C. spells out how the company will become a big moneymaker and boost shareholder value. D. addresses the critical issue of "why our business model needs to change and how we plan to change it." E. spells out the organization's strategic moves that will be undertaken to achieve competitive advantage.

Q: A company's strategic vision concerns A. a company's directional path and future product-customer-market-technology focus. B. why the company does certain things in trying to please its customers. C. management's story line of how it intends to make a profit with the chosen strategy. D. "who we are and what we do." E. what future actions the enterprise will likely undertake to outmaneuver rivals and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage.

Q: The strategy-making, strategy-executing process A. is usually delegated to members of a company's board of directors so as not to infringe on the time of busy executives. B. includes establishing a company's mission, developing a business model aimed at making the company an industry leader, and crafting a strategy to implement and execute the business model. C. embraces the tasks of developing a strategic vision, setting objectives, crafting a strategy, implementing and executing the strategy, and then monitoring developments and initiating corrective adjustments in light of experience, changing conditions, and new opportunities. D. is principally concerned with sizing up an organization's internal and external situation, so as to be prepared for the challenge of developing a sound business model. E. is primarily the responsibility of top executives and the board of directors; very few managers below this level are involved.

Q: A company's strategic plan consists of A. its balanced scorecard and its business model. B. a vision of where it is headed, a set of performance targets, and a strategy to achieve them. C. its strategy and management's specific, detailed plans for implementing it. D. a company's plans for improving value-creating internal processes. E. a strategic vision, a strategy, and a business model.

Q: When a company is confronted with significant industry change that mandates radical revision of its strategic course, the company is said to have encountered A. a learning and growth perspective. B. a strategic inflection point. C. a strategic roadblock. D. a new strategic opportunity. E. an opportunity for corporate entrepreneurship.

Q: The strategic management process is shaped by A. management's strategic vision, strategic and financial objectives, and strategy. B. the decisions made by the compensation and audit committees of the board of directors. C. external factors such as the industry's economic and competitive conditions and internal factors such as the company's collection of resources and capabilities. D. a company's customer value proposition and profit formula. E. actions to strengthen competitive capabilities and correct weaknesses, actions to strengthen market standing and competitiveness by acquiring or merging with other companies, and actions to enter new geographic or product markets.

Q: When companies adopt the strategy-making and strategy execution process it requires they start by A. developing a strategic vision, mission and values. B. developing a proven business model, deciding on the company's top management team, and crafting a strategy. C. setting objectives, developing a business model, crafting a strategy, and deciding how much of the company's resources to employ in the pursuit of sustainable competitive advantage. D. coming up with a statement of the company's mission and communicating it to all employees, setting objectives, selecting a business model, and monitoring developments and initiating corrective adjustments to the business model when necessary. E. deciding on the company's board of directors, setting financial objectives, crafting a strategy, and choosing what business approaches and operating practices to employ.

Q: Which of the following is an integral part of the managerial process of crafting and executing strategy? A. Developing a proven business model B. Setting objectives and using them as yardsticks for measuring the company's performance and progress C. Deciding how much of the company's resources to employ in the pursuit of sustainable competitive advantage D. Communicating the company's mission and purpose to all employees E. Deciding on the composition of the company's board of directors

Q: Which one of the following is not one of the five stages of an ongoing, continuous strategic management process? A. Forming a strategic vision of the company's future direction and focus B. Setting objectives to measure progress toward achieving the strategic vision C. Crafting a strategy to achieve the objectives and get the company where it wants to go D. Developing a profitable business model E. Implementing and executing the chosen strategy efficiently and effectively

Q: Why is sustainable competitive advantage so important to a winning business strategy?

Q: What are the three criteria for determining whether a company has a winning strategy?

Q: Define and explain the importance of the two elements of a company's business model.

Q: What are the two elements of a company's business model?

Q: Explain the difference between a company's business model and a company's strategy.

Q: List five elements of an enterprise's business strategy.

Q: Briefly define each of the following terms: a. Strategy b. Sustainable competitive advantage c. Business model

Q: Which of the following questions ought to be used to distinguish a winning strategy from a so-so or flawed strategy? A. Does the strategy contain a sufficient number of emergent/reactive elements? B. Is the company putting too little emphasis on growth and profitability and too much emphasis on behaving in an ethical and socially responsible manner? C. Is the strategy resulting in the development of additional competitive capabilities? D. Is the strategy well-matched to the company's situation, helping the company achieve a sustainable competitive advantage, and resulting in better company performance? E. Does the strategy strike a good balance between maximizing shareholder wealth and maximizing customer satisfaction?