Q&A Hero

Q: Management's blueprint for how and why the company's business approaches will generate revenues sufficient to cover costs and produce attractive profits and returns on investment A) best describes what is meant by a company's strategy. B) best describes what is meant by a company's business model. C) accounts for why a company's financial objectives are at the stated level. D) portrays the essence of a company's business purpose or mission. E) is what is meant by the term strategic intent.

Q: A deliberate strategy is best exemplified by a(n) A) popular downtown theater that has been staging plays and showing films decides to begin booking rock and roll acts. B) airline company that cuts frills in order to cope with increasing fuel prices. C) IT firm that trims jobs during a recession. D) smartphone manufacturer that divests its tablet production branch after not gaining market share. E) online jewelry reseller that discontinues its line of turquoise rings due to lack of demand.

Q: Why is it important to craft a business model? A) Because it sets forth management's game plan for maximizing profits for shareholders B) Because it details exactly how management's strategy will result in the achievement of the company's strategic intent C) Because it is a part of an operating model that focuses on delivering excellence and creating value for external shareholders and internal labor force D) Because it sets forth the key components of the enterprise's business approach, indicates how revenues will be generated, and makes a case for why the strategy can deliver value to customers in a profitable manner E) Because it sets forth management's long-term action plan to match the business standards set by formidable rivals

Q: Strategy is about competing differently than rivals; thus, strategy success is about A) the sources of sustained advantages and superior profitability. B) those emergent, unplanned, reactive, and adaptive plans that are more appropriate than deliberate or intended ones that drive the realized strategy. C) matching internal resources and capabilities to the industry environment. D) keeping the firm current with the rapid pace of change in the industry. E) replacing proactive and reactive measures by modified ongoing strategic elements to preserve company values.

Q: The consumer goods companies listed below all pursue the same business model with the exception of A) Acer laptops. B) Gillette razors. C) Epson printers. D) Keurig espresso coffee machines. E) Nintendo Wii.

Q: In the course of crafting a strategy, managers typically do not A) abandon certain strategy elements that have grown stale or become obsolete. B) modify the current strategy when market and competitive conditions take an unexpected turn or some aspects of the company's strategy hit a stone wall. C) revamp the current strategy in response to the fresh strategic maneuvers of rival firms. D) take proactive actions to improve this or that piece of the strategy. E) share the strategy publicly to obtain additional customer and shareholder support.

Q: A company's business model A) concerns the actions and business approaches that will be used to grow the business, conduct operations, and stake a competitor's market position. B) is management's blueprint for how it will generate revenues sufficient to cover costs and yield an attractive profit. C) concerns what combination of moves in the marketplace it plans to make to outcompete rivals. D) deals with how it can simultaneously maximize profits and operate in a socially responsible manner that keeps its prices as low as possible. E) concerns how management plans to pursue strategic objectives, given the larger imperative of meeting or beating its financial performance targets.

Q: It is incorrect to say that a company's strategy evolves due to A) a need to promote stability and retain the status quo. B) the need to abandon some strategy elements that are no longer working well. C) a need to respond to changing customer requirements and expectations. D) a need to react to fresh strategic maneuvers on the part of rival firms. E) the proactive efforts of company managers to improve obsolete aspects of the strategy.

Q: Due to impending labor strife over planned layoffs in its Silicon Valley headquarters, a social networking company has decided to outsource its programming operations to an emerging market, India, to obtain cheaper labor. Since then, this social networking company has encountered criticism that has diminished its current market position and staff productivity. You have been retained by this company to develop an appropriate reactive (emergent) strategy that would begin by A) hiring and training new talent to begin operations in the emerging market. B) acquiring a local computer chip marketing and distribution specialist firm in the new location. C) cancelling the idea of outsourcing and retaining the existing workforce to run operations. D) shifting the existing workforce to the new geographical location and paying them according to new standards. E) cancelling the job cuts till the market situation and entry operations stabilize.

Q: A company's realized strategy evolves from one version to the next due to A) changing management direction because of understanding several appealing strategy alternatives. B) the proactive efforts of company managers to improve the current strategy, a need to respond to changing customer requirements and expectations, and a need to react to fresh strategic maneuvers on the part of rival firms. C) ongoing turnover in the managerial and executive ranks (new managers often decide to shift to a different strategy). D) pressures from shareholders to boost profit margins and pay higher dividends. E) the importance of keeping the company's business model fresh and up-to-date.

Q: A luxury bathtub manufacturer offered scented bubble bath foams and massage coupons as a gimmick when its bathtubs did not sell. The bubble foam became famous among some women and led to a line of exclusive bath products for women. The manufacturer established shops in various regional locations and hired celebrities to market its products to enhance sales. Now its products are sold through retail outlets and online sites throughout the world. Which of the following is accurate? A) Offering scented bubble bath foams and massage coupons was an emergent strategy. B) Creating a subbrand that offered exclusive bath products for women was an emergent strategy. C) Establishing shops in regional locations was an emergent strategy. D) Hiring celebrities to market its products was an emergent strategy. E) Creating a worldwide presence through retail outlets and online sites was an emergent strategy.

Q: Strategy formulation is A) mostly hidden to outside view and is deliberately kept under wraps by top-level managers (so as to catch rival companies by surprise when the strategy is launched). B) typically planned well in advance and usually deviates little from the planned set of actions and business approaches because of the risks of making on-the-spot changes. C) static over time unless a newly appointed CEO decides to take the company in a new direction with a new strategy. D) typically a blend of proactive and reactive strategy elements. E) developed solely on the fly because managers must make constant efforts to come up with fresh moves to keep a company's product offering clearly set apart from the product offerings of rival firms.

Q: Consider the following three companies and their strategies. Company A is an established database management company that acquires a well-reputed but small publishing house to enter the booming publishing industry. Company B, a sports management house, declared bankruptcy during a recent recession but now has created a television network that airs regional sports events. Company C, a package delivery business, is a startup based on delivery efficiency models created by a few students, and delivers almost all kinds of packages. The use of strategies by these three companies accurately can be analyzed by saying that A) Company B employs an emergent strategy, whereas companies A and C employ deliberate strategies. B) All three companies employ deliberate strategies. C) All three companies employ emergent strategies. D) Company C employs a deliberate strategy; companies A and B employ emergent strategy. E) companies A and C employ emergent strategies; company B employs a deliberate strategy.

Q: Crafting a deliberate strategy involves developing strategy elements that A) imitate as much of the market leader's strategy as possible so as not to end up at a competitive disadvantage. B) comprise a five-year strategic plan that is then fine-tuned during the remainder of the plan period; big changes in strategy are thus made only once every five years. C) consist of a blend of proactive new planned initiatives plus ongoing strategy elements continued from prior periods. D) deliberately eliminate the ongoing strategic elements and implement new planned initiatives. E) consist of adaptive change plans to new market situations along with abandoned redundant ongoing elements.

Q: An emergent strategy is best exemplified by a(n) A) local hardware store that offers a 10 percent discount for seniors on the first Wednesday of every month. B) online book reseller that diversifies into custom book publishing. C) oil-change franchisor that continues geographical expansion despite a recession. D) healthy food manufacturer that integrates forward into drive-thru fast health food restaurants. E) microbrewer that invests in building community water wells during a drought.

Q: It is normal for a company's strategy to end up being A) a blend of offensive actions on the part of managers to improve the company's profitability and defensive moves to counteract changing market conditions. B) a combination of conservative moves to protect the company's market share and somewhat more risky initiatives to set the company's product offering apart from rivals. C) a close imitation of the strategy employed by the recognized industry leader. D) a blend of proactive actions to improve the company's competitiveness and financial performance, and adaptive reactions to unanticipated developments and fresh market conditions. E) more a product of clever entrepreneurship than of efforts to clearly set a company's product/service offering apart from the offerings of rivals.

Q: A company's strategy is a "work in progress" and evolves over time because of the A) importance of developing a fresh strategic plan every year that keeps employees from becoming bored with executing the same strategy year after year. B) ongoing need to imitate the new strategic moves of the industry leaders. C) need to make regular adjustments in the company's strategic vision. D) ongoing need of company managers to react and respond to changing market and competitive conditions. E) frequent need to modify key elements of the company's business model.

Q: Managers must be prepared to modify their strategy except when A) changing circumstances affect performance and the desire to improve the current strategy. B) rivals make or adjust moves in the market due to the shifting needs of buyers. C) encountering stagnating market conditions and increasingly restrictive new customer acquisition opportunities. D) evidence is mounting that the current strategy is becoming less effective. E) rivals announce their monthly profit margins in public.

Q: Adapting to new conditions like new innovations by competitors, fast-changing technological developments, and constantly evaluating what is working result in A) an assured profitability strategy. B) a broad market entry strategy. C) an emergent strategy. D) unlimited revenue generation. E) a proactive strategy.

Q: Managers of every company should be willing and ready to modify their strategies because A) market conditions and circumstances are changing over time or the current strategy is clearly failing. B) the task of crafting strategy is a one-time event. C) the strategic vision necessitates periodic updating. D) frequent changes in strategy make it very difficult for rivals to imitate. E) all strategies are reactive.

Q: A "repeatedly evolving strategy" best applies to a A) government housing agency that formulates urban redevelopment plans during a four-year window of time and implements them phase by phase over that period of time. B) mobile phone company, established in a saturated market, that plans its research and development activities to allow for quarterly releases of new products that match or overtake features of rivals' mobile phones. C) startup cosmetics manufacturer that replicates the products of rivals but at a comparable quality and lower price. D) nationalized bank that lends at a lower interest rate but offers a zero-processing fee in a market crowded with privatized banks running at high cost. E) firearms regulatory agency, set up by the government, that publishes industry standards for safety, reliability, and quality of arms and ammunition.

Q: An evolving strategy for a ride-share business like Uber or Lyft is not likely to be triggered by A) their need to keep strategy in step with changing circumstances, market conditions, and changing customer needs and expectations. B) the proactive efforts of their managers to fine-tune and improve one or more pieces of the strategy. C) their need to abandon some strategy features that have been faltering or are no longer working well. D) their need to respond to the newly initiated actions and competitive moves of manufacturers of autonomous vehicles. E) their need to respond to short-term swings in the stock market that impact timing of an initial public offering (IPO).

Q: If you were advising Rebel Toad Brewing, a local brewpub, about how to set itself apart from rivals and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage, you would most likely not recommend that Rebel Toad Brewing A) strive to be the industry's low-cost provider, thereby aiming for a cost-based competitive advantage. B) outcompete rivals on the basis of differentiating features such as higher quality, wider product selection, added performance, better service, more attractive styling, technological superiority, or unusually good value for the money. C) mimic the successful strategies of rivals. D) focus on a narrow market niche to achieve a competitive edge by doing a better job than rivals of satisfying the needs and tastes of buyers comprising the niche. E) develop a cost advantage based on offering more value for its patrons' money.

Q: Strategic approaches to set a company apart from rivals and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage are not likely to include A) striving to be the industry's low-cost provider. B) outcompeting rivals on the basis of differentiating features that will appeal to a broad spectrum of buyers. C) developing a best-cost provider strategy that gives customers more value for the money. D) focusing on a narrow market niche and serving buyers' special needs and tastes. E) striving to be the industry's high-price provider.

Q: Giving customers more value for the money by satisfying their expectations on key quality features, performance, and/or service attributes while beating their price expectations is a ________ strategy. A) best-cost provider B) focused low-cost C) focused differentiation D) broad differentiation E) low-cost provider

Q: Volta Motors, a manufacturer of self-driving delivery trucks, is working on developing its next-generation electric vehicles. It has decided on a strategy of focusing on a narrow buyer segment and outcompeting rivals by offering buyers customized autonomous, self-driving electric vehicles at a lower cost than rivals. What basic strategic approach has Volta Motors decided upon? A) focused differentiation B) best-cost provider C) low-cost provider D) broad differentiation E) focused low-cost

Q: Identify the company with a low-cost provider strategy. A) A fashion clothing line uses sought-after designers and natural fabrics. B) A mortgage company specializes in lending money for second homes. C) An online retailer delivers organic groceries overnight. D) A baby products retailer sells unassembled baby furniture produced in China. E) A dairy products manufacturer uses exotic substitutes to produce lactose-free dairy products.

Q: A) a low-cost provider strategy B) a broad differentiation strategy C) a focused low-cost strategy D) a focused differentiation strategy E) a best-cost provider strategy

Q: What separates a powerful strategy from a run-of-the-mill or ineffective one? A) the ability of the strategy to keep the company profitable B) the proven ability of the strategy to generate maximum profits C) the speed with which it helps the company achieve its strategic vision D) management's ability to forge a series of actions, both in the marketplace and internally, that sets the company apart from rivals and produces sustainable competitive advantage E) whether it allows the company to maximize shareholder value in the shortest possible time.

Q: Amy's Drive-Thru, a fast food facility, offers healthy, sustainably grown veggie and vegan fast food at higher prices than its competitors in the market and has a drive-through and indoor seated casual dining operation. What strategy is Amy's Drive-Thru using to gain competitive advantage? A) a low-cost provider strategy B) a broad differentiation strategy C) a focused low-cost strategy D) a differentiation strategy E) a best-cost provider strategy

Q: A creative and distinctive strategy that sets a company apart from rivals and that gives it a sustainable competitive advantage A) is a reliable indicator that the company has a socially responsible business model. B) is achievable in emerging but not mature industries. C) is a company's most reliable ticket to above-average profitability. D) signals that the company has a bold, ambitious strategic intent that places the achievement of strategic objectives ahead of the achievement of financial objectives. E) is the best indicator that the company's strategy and business model are well-matched and properly synchronized.

Q: If you were asked to develop a low-cost provider strategy for a startup passenger air carrier business, what would you most likely not recommend? A) offer low prices on short-distance flights and eliminate meals during flights B) offer low prices on long-distance flights and maintain long service times for aircraft between flights C) offer low prices on short-distance flights and improve airplane capacity by reducing the distance between existing seats to permit adding more rows of seating D) offer low prices on short-distance flights and pay flight attendants a minimum wage E) offer low prices on long-distance flights and charge fees for both carry-on and checked luggage

Q: A company achieves a competitive advantage when it A) provides buyers with superior value compared to rival sellers or offers the same value at a lower cost. B) has a profitable business model. C) is able to maximize shareholder wealth. D) is consistently able to achieve both its strategic and financial objectives. E) has a strategy well-matched to its business model.

Q: Winning a sustainable competitive edge over competitors does not hinge on which of the following? A) having a distinctive competitive product offering B) building competitively valuable expertise and capabilities not readily matched, and offering distinctive products C) building experience, know-how, and specialized capabilities that have been perfected over a long period of time D) having hard-to-beat capabilities and impressive product innovation E) building products and distributing them at low prices to a broad customer base irrespective of manufacturing cost

Q: A creative, distinctive strategy that delivers a sustainable competitive advantage is important because A) without a competitive advantage a company cannot become the industry leader. B) without a competitive advantage a company is likely to fall into bankruptcy. C) crafting a strategy that yields a competitive advantage over rivals is a company's most reliable means of achieving above-average profitability and financial performance. D) a competitive advantage is what enables a company to achieve its strategic objectives. E) how a company goes about trying to please customers and outcompete rivals is what enables senior managers to choose an appropriate strategic vision for the company.

Q: A salsa manufacturing company that enjoys the lest bargaining power with its suppliers would most likely be A) involved in mass production of its products to cater to an expanding customer base. B) actively catering to a broad, price-sensitive customer base. C) manufacturing high-quality salsa and related products from readily available raw materials for a broad customer base. D) selling salsa and related products deemed to be highly popular and easily available across most supermarkets. E) offering high-cost specialized salsas that could be consumed only by customers with specific food allergies.

Q: The pattern of actions and business approaches that would not define a company's strategy include actions to A) strengthen market standing and competitiveness by acquiring or merging with other companies. B) strengthen competitiveness via strategic coalitions and partnerships. C) upgrade competitively important resources and capabilities. D) gain sales and market share with lower prices despite increased costs. E) strengthen the firm's bargaining position with suppliers and distributors.

Q: The heart and soul of a company's strategy-making effort is determining how to A) become the industry's low-cost provider. B) maximize profits and shareholder value. C) improve the efficiency of its business model. D) maximize profits while simultaneously operating in a socially responsible manner that keeps the company's prices as low as possible. E) come up with moves and actions that produce a durable competitive edge over rivals.

Q: In crafting a company's strategy, managers A) face the biggest challenge of how closely to replicate strategies of successful companies in the industry. B) have comparatively little freedom in choosing the "hows" of strategy. C) are wise not to decide on concrete courses of action in order to preserve maximum strategic flexibility. D) need to come up with a sustainable competitive advantage that draws in customers and produces a competitive edge over rivals. E) are well-advised to be risk-averse and develop a "conservative" strategy"dare-to-be-different" strategies are rarely successful.

Q: A company's strategy stands a better chance of succeeding when A) it is developed through a collaborative process involving all managers and staff from all levels of the organization. B) managers employ conservative strategic moves based on past experience and form an underlying basis of control. C) it is predicated on competitive moves aimed at appealing to buyers in ways that set the company apart from rivals. D) managers copy the strategic moves of successful companies in its industry. E) managers focus on meeting or beating shareholder expectations.

Q: FaberRoad, a respected courier brand, is fast losing its market share to competitors who do overnight deliveries of packages or offer lower prices. The company's research department has found that many customers care more about knowing exactly when a package will arrive than getting it the next day. Which strategy would best address the current state of FaberRoad and help it regain its market? A) employing night delivery drivers at a high cost and maintenance charges B) developing radio tags that could be attached to packages to allow for real-time tracking by customers' PCs and mobile phones C) diversifying the different types of packages that can be transported and enabling booking through calls D) acquiring small transportation companies with cheaper trucks and tempos, rebranding, and using them for deliveries E) engaging in expensive advertising with new tag lines and famous celebrities to enhance its brand image in the market

Q: A company's strategy is NOT concerned with management's choices about how to A) attract and please customers. B) stake out the same market position as successful rival companies. C) grow the business. D) compete successfully. E) conduct operations and improve the company's financial and market performance.

Q: Every strategy needs A) a distinctive element that attracts customers and produces a competitive edge. B) to include similar characteristics to rival company strategies. C) to pursue conservative growth built on historical strengths. D) to employ diverse and sundry operating practices for producing greater control over sales growth targets. E) to mimic the plans of the industry's most successful companies.

Q: Under Armour, a multinational sports apparel company plans entry into a new geographical location, Vietnam, considered an emerging market, with its established and best-selling product line: women's running shorts. How should Under Armour not craft a strategy to enhance future profits in Vietnam? A) create a sales plan that aims to enhance initial sales and market penetration with low prices based on high operational costs B) devise a marketing plan that aims at mass customer segments with attractive advertisements and offers on products C) implement a diversification plan that aims at adding health and fitness centers to its existing line of products D) chart an acquisition plan that aims at acquiring local smaller-scale sports apparel manufacturers that seek funding and offer a complementary product lineup E) establish a distribution plan to set up more supply outlets than any other rivals in the location

Q: To improve performance, there are many different avenues for outcompeting rivals such as A) realizing a higher cost structure and lower operating profit margins than rivals in order to drive sales growth. B) creating products analogous with competitors so as to be competitive in the same markets. C) pursuing similar personalized customer service or quality dimensions as rivals. D) being undecided whether or not to concentrate operations on local versus global markets. E) strengthening competitiveness by pursuing strategic alliances and collaborative partnerships.

Q: Strategy, at its essence, is about A) matching rival businesses' products and quality dimensions in the marketplace. B) building profits for short-term success. C) realigning the market to provoke change in rival companies. D) developing lasting success that can support growth and secure the company's future over the long term. E) re-creating a business model with regularity.

Q: ________ is the set of actions that its managers take to outperform the company's competitors and achieve superior profitability. A) A strategy B) A mission statement C) Strategic intent D) A cost-price framework E) A market vision

Q: A company's strategy consists of the action plan management takes to A) stake out a unique market position and achieve superior profitability. B) compete against rivals and establish a transitory competitive advantage. C) concentrate on improving the existing product offering irrespective of the changing and turbulent markets. D) develop a more appealing business model than rivals. E) identify its strategic vision, its strategic objectives, and its strategic intent.

Q: A pharmaceutical company selling prescription drugs in France for the past 10 years has had moderate sales in a crowded market, as its rivals manufacture and market drugs of similar efficacy and having similar safety precautions, but that have superior market share. This particular pharmaceutical company's greatest challenge is to increase French doctors' prescribing their drugs. What would be the most effective strategy to improve sales performance in the existing market? A) modifying marketing communication to increase brand familiarity within key physician segments B) relocating all the existing drug manufacturing facilities to developing countries to reduce operational costs C) employing hiring plans that aim at acquiring drug designers from rival companies D) exiting the market and entering a new unexplored geographical location E) engaging in new contract talks with suppliers about price breaks

Q: Managerial considerations in determining how to compete successfully do not normally include A) How can a company attract, keep, and please customers? B) How can a company modify its entire product line to emphasize its internal service attributes? C) How should a company respond to changing economic and market conditions? D) How should a company be competitive against rivals? E) How should a company position itself in the marketplace?

Q: Order launching MRP systems are also known as Type II MRP systems.

Q: The Economic Order Quantity model is extremely useful while making decisions on order quantities in MRP systems.

Q: A bill of materials can be coupled with a bill of labor if MRP systems are to be used in service industries.

Q: Forecasting demand in MRP Systems is based on the past demand patterns for components.

Q: End item A requires three component parts: B, C, and D. The bill of materials indicates that for each completed A, one unit of B, 2 units of C, and 1 unit of D are required. Current inventory for the four items is as follows: There are 18 As, 40 Bs, 50 Cs and 35 Ds in stock. If the lead time for all items is one week and there are no scheduled receipts for any item, how many units of product A can be delivered to customers at the start of next week (week 2)? A. 13 B. 25 C. 31 D. 43

Q: The master production schedule for Product A shows a need for 30 units, and Product B shows a need of 25 units. To manufacture a unit of Product A, three units of component C are required. To manufacture a unit of Product B, four units of component C are required. Determine the gross requirements for component C to complete production. A. 55 B. 190 C. 110 D. 380 E. None of the above

Q: In MRP "scheduled receipts" are: A. Identical to "planned order receipts" B. Identical to "planned order releases" C. Identical to "net requirements" D. Open orders not delivered yet

Q: _______ system uses requirements order philosophy, while _____ system uses replenishment order philosophy. A. Order point, MRP B. MRP, order point C. EOQ, Quantity Discount D. P, Q

Q: The gross requirements of a part in an MRP system are determined from: A. Net requirements + on-hand B. Net requirements of end item C. Gross requirements of the immediate part D. Planned order releases of the immediate parent item

Q: Which of the following most closely describes net material requirements in an MRP system? A. Gross requirements - planned receipts B. Gross requirements - (on-hand + scheduled receipts) C. Gross requirements - on-hand + scheduled receipts D. Gross requirements - planned order releases

Q: Successful MRP system elements include: A. Implementation planning

Q: The parts explosion results in the following outputs: A. Purchase orders and S&OP (aggregate planning) B. Purchase orders and bill of materials C. Purchase orders and shop orders D. Shop orders and inventory orders

Q: All of the following help to handle uncertainty when operating an MRP system EXCEPT: A. Safety stock B. Safety lead-time C. Safety capacity D. Back-up suppliers

Q: Type I Material requirements planning systems: A. Are push production systems

Q: Planned lead times: A. Usually are longer than actual working times

Q: An MRP system is designed to deal with: A. Lumpy demand B. Constant demand C. Uncertain demand D. Random demand

Q: Which system specifies the output of the operations function? A. Parts explosion B. Bill of materials C. Master scheduling D. Capacity planning

Q: A replenishment-based system derives orders from: A. Capacity available B. Forecast or customer request C. Bill of materials D. Master schedule

Q: Which of the following is true about MRP Systems? A. Forecast is based on past demand B. Lot sizing is EOQ C. Demand pattern is random D. Objective is to meet manufacturing needs

Q: A requirements-based system derives orders from: A. Customer requests B. Forecast C. Bill of materials D. Master schedule

Q: Which type of MRP system is used as an information system to plan and control inventories and capacities? A. Type I B. Type II C. ERP D. None of the above

Q: The three inputs for an MRP parts explosion are: A. Inventory, master schedule, and bill of materials B. Forecast, inventory, and bill of materials C. Capacity, master schedule, and inventory D. Forecast, bill of materials, and master schedule

Q: Bills of materials are kept current with changes using: A. Master scheduling systems B. Engineering change order systems C. Inventory tracking systems D. Capacity planning systems

Q: Cycle counting: A. Is counting a fraction of inventory each day B. Does not eliminate the need for annual physical inventory C. Is a way to plan inventory on a cyclic basis D. Is a way to decide how much to order

Q: A Type II MRP system: A. Only launches orders B. Has feedback to control capacity C. Includes planning for personnel and capital D. Is also known as an Enterprise Resource Planning System

Q: Successful MRP implementation requires: A. Management support, parts explosion, and adequate computer support B. Marketing support, master schedule, and bill of materials C. Management support, accurate data, and adequate computer support D. None of the above

Q: Compare and contrast MRP systems and Order Point systems of managing inventories. When do firms prefer MRP systems to Order Point Systems? Can MRP systems be used while managing capacity in a factory? Provide sufficient justification for your answer.

Q: Lincoln Machine Tool Company maintains an inventory pool consisting of 10 items. Each of these items has a unique demand pattern and may require a different kind of inventory management system. The annual demand pattern and the unit cost of these items are given in the following table. Conduct an ABC inventory analysis and classify these items into A, B, and C type of inventories. Suggest suitable methods for managing these three distinct types of inventories. Item Unit cost Annual usage (in units) 1 $1.50 5000 2 $8.00 1500 3 $10.50 10,000 4 $2.00 6000 5 $0.50 7500 6 $13.60 6000 7 $0.75 5000 8 $1.25 4500 9 $2.50 7000 10 $2.00 3000

Q: The bill of materials: A. Shows how much inventory is available B. Is a bill sent to the customer for material ordered C. Is a list of all materials required to produce a part D. None of the above

Q: Safety stock in an MRP system: A. Is never needed