Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following is not true about the use of apps? A) The average U.S. consumer spends over two hours a day using apps. B) Users still spend less time using apps than they do using desktops or mobile Web sites. C) Apps are easier to control and monetize than Web sites. D) Around 280 million people worldwide launch a smartphone app more than 60 times a day.

Q: Business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce in the United States: A) has grown at double-digit rates between 2010 and 2015. B) has less revenue than C2C e-commerce. C) now constitutes over 50% of the overall U.S. retail market. D) is growing more slowly as it confronts its own fundamental limitations.

Q: Which of the following is an example of social e-commerce? A) Amazon B) eBay C) Wikipedia D) Facebook

Q: Which type of e-commerce is distinguished by the type of technology used in the transaction rather than by the nature of the market relationship? A) consumer-to-consumer (C2C) B) social e-commerce C) mobile e-commerce D) business-to-business (B2B)

Q: How has e-commerce changed the marketing of goods?

Q: Identify the eight unique features of e-commerce technology and explain how these features set e-commerce apart from more traditional ways of conducting commercial transactions.

Q: Why study e-commerce?

Q: E-commerce technologies provide a unique, many-to-many model of mass communication.

Q: Personalization involves targeting marketing messages to specific individuals by adjusting the message based upon a consumer's preferences or past purchasing behavior.

Q: Cost transparency refers to the ease with which consumers can find out the variety of prices in a market.

Q: Universal standards make price discovery more costly, slower, and less accurate.

Q: The fact that e-commerce is conducted on the basis of universal standards increases search costs for consumers.

Q: Ubiquity lowers the cognitive energy required to transact in a marketspace.

Q: E-commerce is available just about everywhere and anytime. This is known as ________. A) richness B) information density C) ubiquity D) reach

Q: Which of the following refers to the complexity and content of a message? A) richness B) reach C) information density D) interactivity

Q: The total number of users or customers an e-commerce business can obtain is a measure of which of the following? A) ubiquity B) interactivty C) reach D) information density

Q: Which of the following is a physical place you visit in order to transact? A) marketspace B) marketplace C) social network D) the Internet

Q: Which of the followingrefers to any disparity in relevant market information among parties in a transaction? A) information asymmetry B) unfair competitive advantage C) imperfect competition D) dynamic pricing

Q: The costs incurred by merchants in having to change product prices (such as the costs of reentering prices into computer systems) are referred to as which of the following? A) subscription costs B) fixed costs C) menu costs D) variable costs

Q: Interactivity in the context of e-commerce provides which of the following functionalities? A) the ability to physically touch and manipulate a product B) complexity and content of a message C) the ability of consumers to create and distribute content D) the enabling of two-way communication between consumer and merchant

Q: Which of the following statements is true about the traditional tradeoff between the richness and reach of a marketing message prior to the development of the Web? A) Marketing messages had little richness. B) The smaller the audience reached, the less rich the message. C) The larger the audience reached, the less rich the message. D) Richness was unrelated to reach.

Q: Which of the following features of e-commerce technology is related to the concept of network externalities? A) richness B) interactivity C) universal standards D) information density

Q: In 2015, the world's online population was estimated to be around: A) 310 million. B) 3.1 billion. C) 31 billion. D) 310 billion.

Q: Which of the following is the best definition of transaction cost? A) the expense of changing national or regional prices B) the cost of participating in a market C) the cost of finding suitable products in the market D) the cost merchants pay to bring their goods to market

Q: Which of the following features of e-commerce technology allows users to participate in the creation of online content? A) ubiquity B) global reach C) information density D) social technology

Q: Which of the following features of e-commerce technology enables merchants to market and sell "complex" goods and services to consumers via marketing messages that can integrate video, audio, and text? A) richness B) ubiquity C) information density D) personalization

Q: Which of the following is not a unique feature of e-commerce technology? A) interactivity B) social technology C) information asymmetry D) richness

Q: Explain why a firm's online inventory control system is an example of e-business rather than e-commerce. What is the key factor in determining if a transaction is "commerce"?

Q: E-commerce and e-business systems blur together at the business firm boundary, at the point at which internal business systems link up with suppliers or customers.

Q: The term e-commerce refers to the digital enabling of transactions and processes involving an exchange of value across organizational boundaries.

Q: Which of the following terms can be considered synonymous with the term e-commerce? A) e-business B) digital commerce C) the Internet D) the Web

Q: Which of the following is an example of e-business? A) Amazon's inventory control system B) the Amazon.com Web site C) an Amazon mobile app D) Amazon's Pinterest page

Q: E-commerce can be defined as: A) the use of the Internet, the Web, and mobile apps to transact business. B) the use of any Internet technologies in a firm's daily activities. C) the digital enablement of transactions and processes within an organization. D) any digitally enabled transactions among individuals and organizations.

Q: Four fundamental reasons for project failure include all of the following except; a) Project was not required for this task in the first place b) Insufficient support form senior management c) Insufficient funds d) Poor up-front funding e) Naming the wrong project manager

Q: The four important dimensions for measuring project success include the following except... a) Efficiency in meeting the budget and schedule b) Customer impact/satisfaction c) Business/direct success d) Future potential e) Planning

Q: A data collection form to support a project audit would include data from all the following categories except a) financial data b) technical data c) managerial data d) risk management data e) All of the above categories would be included in the data collection form.

Q: Which of the following information should not be contained in an audit report? a) Introduction b) final comments c) Risk analysis d) future project status e) Project RACI matrix

Q: Which of the following is typically not included in the project final report? a) administrative performance b) project performance c) organizational structure d) project teamwork e) risk analysis and risk management

Q: Which of the following is not a main duty of the termination manager? a) Oversee the closing of the project's books b) Complete the project final report c) Ascertain any product support requirements d) Ensure completion of work e) Ensure that documentation is complete

Q: Which of the following is most closely associated with the output of a project becoming a standard part of the operating systems of the sponsoring firm or client? a) termination-by-addition b) termination-by-extinction c) termination-by-integration d) termination-by-starvation e) termination-by-elimination

Q: Which of the following is not a type of project termination mentioned in the text? a) project extinction b) termination-by-addition c) termination-by-integration d) termination-by-starvation e) termination-by-elimination

Q: Which of the following was not a major section listed in the text for the audit report? a) current status b) future project status c) critical management issues d) financial analysis e) risk analysis and risk management

Q: Which of the following was not mentioned in the text as a valuable source of information for a project audit? a) the project's Request for Proposal b) minutes from the project selection committee c) benchmark data from other similar projects d) minutes of senior management committees that initiated the project e) All of the above were mentioned in the text as valuable sources of information for a project audit.

Q: Which of the following is not a typical step in a project audit? a) familiarize the audit team with the requirements of the project b) collect benchmark data from other similar projects c) audit the project on-site d) write-up the audit report in the required format e) distribute the report

Q: In which of the following project states is the value of the project audit of rather limited usefulness? a) master schedule b) initiation c) feasibility study d) preliminary plan/schedule budget e) The value of the project audit is very useful in all of the above project states.

Q: Which of the following audits is typically performed by a person or team with special technical skills? a) the general audit b) the detailed audit c) the aggregate audit d) the quality audit e) the technical audit

Q: According to the text, which of the following is not a common level of depth for an audit. a) the general audit b) the detailed audit c) technical audit d) aggregate audit e) All of the above are common levels of depth for an audit.

Q: According to the text, which of the following is not an item to consider for project evaluation report recommendations? a) communication with the client and senior management b) locating opportunities for technological advances c) locating opportunities to crash the project d) improving the project-management process e) improving the organization's used of projects

Q: According to research, which of the following is not an important dimension of project success? a) project efficiency b) project team cohesiveness c) customer impact/satisfaction d) business/direct success e) future potential

Q: Which of the following is concerned with appraising a project relative to its initial or revised plan? a) project evaluation b) project termination c) project monitoring d) project control e) project planning

Q: A special type of project termination characterized by its unexpected suddenness and initiated by events such as forced retirement of the projects champion or the merger of the firm conducting the project with another firm is referred to as termination by "murder"".

Q: A general audit is usually constrained by time and cost and limited to a brief investigation of project essentials.

Q: Project evaluation is an appraisal for use by top management.

Q: The term evaluate means to set the value or appraise.

Q: Organizational structure should be addressed in the project final report.

Q: The project final report is a history of the project.

Q: It is generally advisable to have the project manager serve as the termination manager.

Q: Project termination should be treated as a mechanistic process.

Q: It is best for the project manager and project team to make the termination decision.

Q: Termination-by-integration occurs when an "in-house" project is successfully completed and institutionalized as a new, formal part of the organization.

Q: Naming the wrong project manager is a fundamental reason for project failure.

Q: Poor up-front planning is a fundamental reason for project failure.

Q: The way project termination is managed can impact the project's success.

Q: A discussion of the potential for project failure and monetary loss should be included in the audit report.

Q: The request for proposal may contain valuable information for a project audit.

Q: The use of forms to collect data during a project audit is generally considered not to be good management practice since they can limit the audit team's flexibility.

Q: Project audits are typically very useful at the master schedule project state.

Q: Project audits are typically very useful in the initiation project state.

Q: The general audit is usually performed by a person or team with special technical skills.

Q: Later project audits are typically of less value to the project team and of more interest to general management.

Q: Early project audits usually focus on the project's budget and schedule.

Q: The timing of an audit depends on the purpose of the audit.

Q: The project audit focuses its attention on the organization's management systems and operations.

Q: The project audit is typically broader than the traditional management audit.

Q: The formal audit is a special type of project evaluation.

Q: Measuring a project's success on budget, schedule, and performance is typically more complicated than measuring revenues or qualitative, subjective factors.

Q: Measuring the project's performance against a planned budget and schedule is generally straightforward.

Q: According to research, future potential is an important dimension of project success.

Q: The original criteria for selecting and funding the project are largely irrelevant for project evaluation.

Q: The primary purpose of project evaluation is to given feedback to senior management for decision and control purposes.