Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following are central directories that list all domain names currently in use for specific domains? A) Web servers B) root servers C) client servers D) DNS servers

Q: Which of the following is not a basic type of cloud computing service? A) IaaS B) PaaS C) SaaS D) FiOS

Q: Which of the following is a set of rules for transferring data? A) protocol B) packet C) router D) IP address

Q: Which of the following are specialized computers that interconnect the thousands of computers that make up the Internet in order to transmit message parcels along available communication paths and on to their destinations? A) routers B) Web servers C) IP servers D) packet servers

Q: Which of the following technologies has enabled the Internet to grow exponentially to support millions of users, without overloading the network architecture? A) fiber optics B) Wi-Fi C) IPv6 D) client/server computing

Q: ________ is a utility program that allows you to check the connection between your client and a TCP/IP network. A) Ping B) Telnet C) Tracert D) Finger

Q: ________ is used to allow remote login on another computer. A) Telnet B) FTP C) HTTP D) SSL

Q: Which of the following statements about cloud computing is not true? A) A public cloud is typically used by companies with stringent privacy and security requirements. B) Dropbox is an example of a public cloud. C) Hybrid clouds offer both public and private cloud options. D) A private cloud hosted internally or externally.

Q: Where does TLS operate within TCP/IP? A) between the Internet Layer and the Transport Layer B) between the Transport Layer and the Application Layer C) between the Network Interface Layer and the Transport Layer D) between the Internet Layer and the Application Layer

Q: Which of the following protocols is used to send mail to a server? A) IMAP B) FTP C) HTTP D) SSL

Q: ________ is a model of computing in computer processing, storage, software, and other services are provided as a shared pool of virtualized resources over the Internet. A) Client/server computing B) P2P computing C) Mobile computing D) Cloud computing

Q: Which of the following is not an advantage of client/server computing over centralized mainframe computing? A) It is easy to expand capacity by adding servers and clients. B) Each client added to the network increases the network's overall capacity and transmission speeds. C) Client/server networks are less vulnerable, in part because the processing load is balanced over many powerful smaller computers rather than concentrated in a single huge computer. D) There is less risk that a system will completely malfunction because backup or mirror servers can pick up the slack if one server goes down.

Q: The address used by a browser to identify the location of content on the Web is called: A) a domain name. B) a uniform resource locator. C) an IP address. D) a file path.

Q: The ________ allows a natural language expression, such as Google.com to represent a numeric IP address. A) uniform resource locator system B) Internet protocol addressing schema C) domain name system D) assigned numbers and names (ANN) system

Q: An IPv4 address is expressed as a: A) 32-bit number that appears as a series of four separate numbers separated by semicolons. B) 64-bit number that appears as a series of four separate numbers separated by semicolons. C) 64-bit number that appears as a series of four separate numbers separated by periods. D) 32-bit number that appears as a series of four separate numbers separated by periods.

Q: The Internet Layer of TCP/IP is responsible for which of the following? A) placing packets on and receiving them from the network medium B) addressing, packaging, and routing messages C) providing communication with the application by acknowledging and sequencing the packets to and from the application D) providing a variety of applications with the ability to access the services of the lower layers

Q: The Transport Layer of TCP/IP is responsible for which of the following? A) placing packets on and receiving them from the network medium B) addressing, packaging, and routing messages C) providing communication with the application by acknowledging and sequencing the packets to and from the application D) providing a variety of applications with the ability to access the services of the lower layers

Q: Which of the following is the core communications protocol for the Internet? A) Telnet B) FTP C) TCP/IP D) TLS

Q: The process of slicing digital messages into parcels, sending them along different communication paths as they become available, and reassembling them at the destination point is called: A) routing. B) the Transmission Control Protocol. C) packet switching. D) the File Transfer Protocol.

Q: Which of the following is not one of the basic technological foundations of the Internet? A) client/server computing B) FTP C) TCP/IP D) packet switching

Q: During which phase of the development of the Internet was the Domain Name System (DNS) introduced? A) Commercialization phase B) Institutional phase C) Innovation phase D) Consolidation phase

Q: Which of the following occurred during the Commercialization phase of Internet development? A) The fundamental building blocks of the Internet were realized in actual hardware and software. B) Mosaic was invented. C) The Domain Name System was introduced. D) NSF privatized the operation of the Internet's backbone.

Q: During which period of time did the Institutionalization phase of Internet development take place? A) 1950-1960 B) 1961-1974 C) 1975-1995 D) 1995-through the present

Q: Describe the four stages involved in business model disruption.

Q: Define value chain and explain the difference between a firm value chain, an industry value chain, and a value web.

Q: Discuss the implications of each of the unique features of e-commerce technology for the overall business environment.

Q: Define the term industry structure and discuss the ways the Internet and e-commerce have changed the five forces that characterize industry structure.

Q: Social technologies change industry structure by shifting programming and editorial decisions to consumers and creating substitute entertainment products.

Q: E-commerce has increased price competition in nearly all markets.

Q: Interactivity that enables product customization alters industry structure by increasing the threat of substitutes.

Q: The Internet's universal standards can change industry structure by increasing barriers to entry and decreasing competition within an industry.

Q: A company's strong linkages with its customers increase switching costs.

Q: Scale economies are efficiencies that result from flattening the hierarchy of an organization.

Q: The term unfit fitness refers to a situation in which employees of a firm have the wrong skills for the current environment.

Q: Innovative entrepreneurs and their business firms that destroy existing business models are referred to as ________. A) crowdfunders B) venture capitalists C) disruptors D) angel investors

Q: ________ technologies are technologies that enable the incremental improvement of products and services. A) Sustaining B) Differentiating C) Disruptive D) Commodity

Q: A strategy designed to compete within a narrow market or product segment is called a ________ strategy. A) scope B) differentiation C) cost D) focus

Q: If you wished to leverage the ubiquitous nature of the Web to differentiate your product, you would: A) enable individual customization of the product by consumers. B) implement a strategy of commoditization. C) adopt a strategy of cost competition. D) develop a scope strategy to compete within a narrower market segment.

Q: A ________ is a networked business ecosystem that coordinates a firm's suppliers, distributors, and delivery firms with its own production needs using an Internet-based supply chain management system. A) value chain B) value system C) value web D) business strategy

Q: Which of the following is not a primary activity in a firm value chain? A) outbound logistics B) finance/accounting C) operations D) after-sales service

Q: Which of the following features of e-commerce technology changes industry structure by lowering barriers to entry but greatly expands the market at the same time? A) global reach B) richness C) interactivity D) personalization

Q: Which business strategy involves implementing a new, more efficient set of business processes that other firms cannot yet obtain? A) strategy of cost competition B) scope strategy C) customer intimacy strategy D) focus/market niche strategy

Q: What is a B2B exchange, and what benefits do they offer? Given those benefits, why are they today only a small part of the overall B2B picture?

Q: SaaS and PaaS providers can typically provide services at lower costs through scale economies.

Q: A ________ marketplace supplies products and services of interest to particular industries. A) perfect B) differentiated C) horizontal D) vertical

Q: SupplyOn is an example of a(n): A) private industrial network. B) exchange. C) industry consortium. D) e-distributor.

Q: Over the past decade, the number of exchanges has: A) greatly increased. B) diminished sharply. C) stayed about the same. D) increased slowly but steadily.

Q: Which of the following may offer its customers value chain management software? A) e-distributors B) e-procurement companies C) exchanges D) community providers

Q: ________ create and sell access to digital markets. A) E-distributors B) Portals C) E-procurement firms D) Market creators

Q: W.W. Grainger is an example of which of the following business models? A) B2B service provider B) exchange C) e-distributor D) industry consortia

Q: What is the primary revenue model for an e-distributor? A) sales B) transaction fee C) advertising D) subscription

Q: All of the following are examples of business-to-business (B2B) business modelsexcept: A) e-distributors. B) e-procurement. C) exchanges. D) e-tailers.

Q: Define and describe the transaction broker business model and discuss the eight components of the business model for this type of B2C firm.

Q: On-demand service companies are characterized by the free sharing of resources between the company and consumers.

Q: In the________ business model, a Web-based business builds a digital environment in which buyers and sellers can meet, display products, search for products, and establish prices. A) market creator B) community provider C) e-tailer D) portal

Q: The financial services, travel services, and job placement services industries typically use the ________ business model. A) community provider B) transaction broker C) market creator D) e-tailer

Q: All of the following are business models employed in the online music industry except: A) subscription. B) peer-to-peer streaming. C) download-and-own. D) cloud streaming.

Q: eBay uses all of the following business models except: A) B2C market creator. B) C2C market creator. C) content provider. D) e-commerce infrastructure provider.

Q: The basic value proposition of community providers is: A) they offer a fast, convenient one-stop site where users can focus on their most important concerns and interests. B) they offer consumers valuable, convenient, time-saving, and low cost alternatives to traditional service providers. C) they create a digital electronic environment for buyers and sellers to meet, agree on a price, and transact. D) they increase customers' productivity by helping them get things done faster and more cheaply.

Q: Portals primarily generate revenue in all of the following ways except: A) charging advertisers for ad placement. B) collecting transaction fees. C) sales of goods. D) charging subscription fees.

Q: Which of the followingisnot considered a portal? A) Yahoo B) MSN C) Amazon D) AOL

Q: All of the following use an advertising revenue model except: A) Twitter. B) Yahoo. C) Google. D) Amazon.

Q: The business model of e-tailers is quite similar to that of: A) e-distributors. B) transaction brokers. C) exchanges. D) service providers.

Q: Define organizational development and describe its importance in relation to the implementation of a business plan and strategy.

Q: Define elevator pitch and describe its key elements.

Q: Who are the e-commerce enablers and why are they important?

Q: Why is the management team such an important element of a business model?

Q: The JOBS Act and issuance of enabling regulations by the Securities and Exchange Commission allows a start-up company to use crowdfunding to solicit accredited investors to invest in small and early-stage start-ups.

Q: All firms need an organization to efficiently implement their business plans and strategies.

Q: First movers are often not as successful as follower firms.

Q: An asymmetry exists whenever all participants in a market have equivalent resources.

Q: Firms that fail to produce returns greater than alternative investments typically go out of business.

Q: A value proposition defines how a company's product or service fulfills the needs of a customer.

Q: Which of the following is not a key element of an elevator pitch? A) exit strategy B) growth metrics C) legal structure D) market opportunity

Q: A wealthy individual who invests personal funds in a start-up in exchange for an equity stock in the business is referred to as a(n) ________. A) incubator B) angel investor C) venture capital investor D) crowdfunder

Q: The use by a company of its competitive advantage to achieve more advantage in surrounding markets is known as ________. A) market strategy B) differentiation C) leverage D) focus

Q: All of the following use a social network marketing strategy except: A) Twitter. B) YouTube. C) Pinterest. D) Amazon.

Q: Which of the following is another name for a revenue model? A) business model B) business strategy C) financial model D) financial statements

Q: Which type of investor typically becomes interested in a start-up company after it has begun generating revenue? A) incubators B) angel investors C) crowdfunders D) venture capital investors

Q: Which of the following statements about Foursquare is not true? A) Foursquare combines a social network business model with location-based technology. B) Foursquare began operating without a revenue model. C) Foursquare's business model faces significant intellectual property concerns. D) Foursquare has been able to command a high valuation from venture capital investors despite unimpressive revenue and profits.