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Management
Q:
The process of helping employees cope with modifications in the workplace is called _____.
Q:
What is the analytical value of studying competitors and trying to predict what moves rivals will make next?
Q:
The kind of service provided to keep an electronic commerce site up and running throughout a day, all the days in a week, is often called _____.
Q:
Identify at least two benefits of constructing a strategic group map.
Q:
A postimplementation audit is also called a(n) _____.
Q:
In doing driving forces analysis, is it sufficient to simply identify the driving forces that are operating to alter industry and competitive conditions? Why or why not?If not, then explain what else is required for a complete driving forces assessment.
Q:
_____ personnel help design and implement customer relationship management activitiesin the electronic commerce operation.
Q:
Identify at least five common driving forces, and briefly explain how each one can produce important changes in industry and competitive conditions.
Q:
Identify five factors that tend to intensify competitive rivalry among an industry's member firms.
Q:
The _____ ,who understands the server hardware and operating system, is responsible for the system's reliable and secure operation.
Q:
A(n) _____ is a person trained in art, layout, and composition and who also understands how Web pages are constructed.
Q:
Identify five factors that tend to weaken the intensity of competitive rivalry among an industry's member firms.
Q:
Identify and briefly explain any four of the factors that influence the strength or intensity of competitive rivalry among an industry's member firms.
Q:
_____ are responsible for purchasing existing material and adapting it for use on Web sites.
Q:
Identify and briefly describe five common barriers to entering an industry.
Q:
Businesspersons who have enough money and business knowledge to evaluate an idea's potential and provide the initial capital to a startup and hope to profit from its rapid growth are called _____.
Q:
Identify and briefly explain any three factors that weaken the competitive pressures stemming from the threat that new firms will enter the industry.
Q:
Online businesses that are _____ companiescannot, in general, borrow from a bank or offer bonds or stock to investors.
Q:
The _____ version of a Web site has features that have passed testing and must be presented by an internal audience for approval.
Q:
Identify and briefly explain any three factors that intensify competitive pressures stemming from the threat that new firms will enter the industry.
Q:
Identify and briefly explain any three factors that lead to weak bargaining power on the part of suppliers.
Q:
The _____ version of a Web site is the full operating version of the site that is available to customers and other visitors.
Q:
Identify and briefly explain any three factors that lead to strong bargaining power on the part of suppliers.
Q:
The _____ version is the "under construction" version of a Web site, whichgives the company a place to make sure that each new feature works beforeexposing it to customers.
Q:
Identify and briefly explain any two of the factors that influence the strength of competition from substitute products.
Q:
The _____ of an organizationspecializes in the specific techniques used to build brands and increase marketshare using the Web site and other online tools, such as e-mail marketing.
Q:
Identify and briefly discuss any three of the factors that influence the bargaining strength and leverage of buyers.
Q:
In the context of project management, in _____, the chief information officer assigns a ranking for each project based on its importance to the strategic goals of the business and its level of risk.
Q:
Identify and briefly explain any three factors that lead to weak bargaining power on the part of buyers.
Q:
In the context of staffing for electronic commerce, a(n) _____ isresponsible for managing the virtual community elements of the Web operation.
Q:
Identify and briefly explain any three factors that lead to strong bargaining power on the part of buyers.
Q:
_____ is a technique in which each project is monitored as if it were an investment in a financial portfolio.
Q:
Today, managers use specific application software called _____ to help them oversee projects.
Q:
Identify and describe the interactions among the competitive forces that comprise the five-forces model of competition. Which of these competitive forces is typically the strongest?Explain.
Q:
One of the first Internet incubatorswas _____, which helped launch companies such as CarsDirect.com, Overture, andTickets.com.
Q:
Identify and describe the relevant factors and forces comprising the environmental context in which a company operates. Which of these factors and forces constitute the company's macro-environment, and which constitute the industry and competitive environment?Explain.
Q:
Open Workbench, OpenProj, and Redmine are open-source _____ software packages that offer many of the same features as the leading commercialproducts.
Q:
Explain the meaning and significance of each of the following:a. driving forcesb. PESTEL analysisc. strategic group mappingd. key success factors
Q:
Partial outsourcing is also called _____.
Q:
What are the key questions that form the framework of thinking strategically about a company's industry and competitive environment?
Q:
Evaluating whether an industry presents a sufficiently attractive business opportunity usually does not involve a consideration of which of the following factors?A. the industry's growth potentialB. whether competitive pressures will likely grow stronger or weakerC. whether the industry's future profitability will be favorably or unfavorably affected by the prevailing driving forcesD. the company's competitive position in the industry and its ability to perform industry key success factorsE. whether the industry's product is strongly or weakly differentiated
Q:
Wealthy individuals, groups of wealthy individuals, orinvestment firms that look for small companies that are about to grow rapidly and invest large amounts of money in them are known as _____.
Q:
Which of the following factors should a company consider when determining if an industry offers good prospects for attractive profits?
A. the industry's growth potential, whether competition appears destined to become stronger or weaker, how the industry's driving forces might affect overall industry profitability, the company's competitive position relative to rivals, and the company's proficiency in performing industry key success factors
B. an assessment of which firms in the industry have the best and worst competitive strategies, whether the number of strategic groups in the industry is increasing or decreasing, and whether economies of scale and experience curve effects are a key success factor
C. whether there are more than five key success factors and more than five barriers to entry
D. constructing a strategic group map and assessing the attractiveness of the competitive position of each strategic group
E. whether the market leaders enjoy competitive advantages and how hard it is to develop a strongly differentiated product
Q:
The major investments in equipment, personnel, and other assets, in a company, are called _____.
Q:
Which of the following is a good example of a manufacturing-related key success factor?
A. global distribution capabilities
B. high labor productivity (especially if the production process has high labor content)
C. low distribution costs
D. accurate filling of buyer orders
E. short delivery time capability
Q:
A company sells stock to the public in an event called a(n) _____.
Q:
Which of the following is not a good example of a marketing-related key success factor?
A. high utilization of fixed assets
B. a well-known and well-respected brand name
C. breadth of product line and product selection
D. clever advertising
E. courteous, personalized customer service
Q:
_____ are the foregone benefits that a company could have obtained from an electronic commerce initiative that they chose not to pursue.
Q:
Measurements that companies can make to assess the value of benefits to the company are often called _____.
Q:
In identifying an industry's key success factors, strategists should
A. try to single out all factors that play a major role in shaping whether buyer demand grows rapidly or slowly.
B. consider on what basis customers choose between competing brands, what resources and competitive capabilities firms need to be competitively successful, and what shortcomings are almost certain to put a company at a significant competitive disadvantage.
C. consider whether the number of strategic groups is increasing or decreasing and whether the five competitive forces are powerful or relatively weak.
D. consider what it will take to overtake the company with the industry's overall best strategy.
E. focus their attention on what it will take to capitalize on impacts of the industry's driving forces.
Q:
A _____ is a formal review of a project after it is up and running.a. postimplementation audit b. project managementc. specific staffing d. project portfolio management
Q:
An industry's key success factors
A. are a function of market share, entry barriers, economies of scale, degree of vertical integration, and industry profitability.
B. vary according to whether an industry has high or low long-term attractiveness.
C. can be determined through identifying an industry's dominant economic characteristics, assessing the five competitive forces, considering the impacts of the driving forces, comparing the market positions of industry members, and forecasting the likely next moves of industry rivals.
D. can be determined from studying the "winning" strategies of the industry leaders and ruling out as potential key success factors the strategy elements of those firms considered to have "losing" strategies.
E. depend on the relative competitive strengths of the industry leaders and how vulnerable they are to competitive attack.
Q:
Most electronic commerce sites require a _____ function to support activities such as transaction processing, order entry, inquiry management, or shipment logistics.a. graphics design b. database administrationc. content management d. content creation
Q:
The key success factors in an industry
A. are the strategy elements, intangible assets, and competitive capabilities that most affect industry members' abilities to prosper in the marketplace.
B. are determined by the industry's driving forces.
C. hinge on how many different strategic groups the industry has.
D. depend on how many rivals are trying to move from one strategic group to another.
E. are a function of such considerations as how many firms are in the industry, how many have market shares above 5 percent, and whether the business models being used are similar or diverse.
Q:
The _____ staff functions include load estimation and load monitoring and designing and implementing fault-resistant technologies.a. call center b. content creationc. database administration d. network operations
Q:
In seeking to predict the next moves of close or key rivals, it is useful to consider which of these questions?
A. Which rivals badly need to increase their unit sales and market share?
B. Are there predictable trends in the timing of rivals' new-product launches or marketing promotions?
C. Which rivals have a strong incentive, along with the resources, to make major strategic changes?
D. Which rivals are likely to enter new geographic markets or expand their product offerings?
E. All of these choices are correct.
Q:
Having good competitive intelligence about rivals' strategies, latest actions and announcements, resource strengths and weaknesses, and moves to improve their situation is important because it
A. identifies who the industry's current market share leaders are.
B. helps a company to anticipate what moves rivals are likely to make next and to craft its own strategic moves.
C. helps identify which rival is in which strategic group.
D. enables company managers to determine which rival has the worst strategy and how to avoid making the same strategy mistakes.
E. enables more accurate predictions about how long it will take a particular rival to copy most of what the strategy leader is doing.
Q:
A(n) _____ is defined as a company that handles incomingcustomer telephone calls and e-mails for other companies.a. auditing firm b. call centerc. recruiter d. incubator
Q:
The payoff of good scouting reports on rivals is improved ability to
A. predict what strategic moves rivals are likely to make next, thereby allowing a company to prepare defensive countermoves and develop strategies to exploit rivals' missteps.
B. determine which rivals are in the best strategic group.
C. figure out how many key success factors a rival has.
D. determine whether a rival is gaining or losing market share, whether rivals are increasing or decreasing R&D spending, and what new marketing promotions are in the works.
E. determine whether a rival has the best strategy and is the industry leader.
Q:
_____ design and write theunderlying code for dynamic database-driven Web pages.a. Content creators b. Web graphics designersc. Content editors d. Web programmers
Q:
Not all positions on a strategic group map are equally attractive because
A. entry and exit barriers are different for each strategic group.
B. key success factors are usually quite different for differently positioned industry participants.
C. small strategic groups are always less profitable than large strategic groups.
D. across-group rivalry is strongest at the outer edges of the strategic group map.
E. industry driving forces and competitive pressures favor some companies or groups and hurt others, and the profit potential of different strategic groups varies because of strengths and weaknesses in each strategic group's position.
Q:
A(n) _____ must ensure that the Web pages on a site are visuallyappealing or easy to use.a. Web graphics designer b. Web programmerc. systems administrator d. application specialist
Q:
A(n) _____ is responsible for keeping track of multiple Web sites in use by a project or keeping track of the projects that will combine to create a larger Web site.a. Web graphics designer b. account managerc. chief information officer d. Web programmer
Q:
Which of the following is not an appropriate guideline for developing a strategic group map for a given industry?
A. Variables chosen as axes for the map should indicate big differences in how rivals have positioned themselves to compete in the marketplace.
B. Variables chosen as axes for the map can be quantitative, qualitative, or discrete and defined in terms of distinct classes and combinations.
C. Variables selected as axes for the map should be highly correlated.
D. Several maps should be drawn if more than one pair of variables can help illuminate differences in the competitive positioning of industry members.
E. Sizes of the circles on the map should be drawn proportional to the combined sales of the firms in each strategic group.
Q:
A(n) _____ is a person with specific training or skills in tracking costs and the accomplishment of specific objectives in an electronic commerce initiative.a. Web programmer b. content managerc. project manager d. application programmer
Q:
A strategic group consists of those firms in an industry that
A. are subject to the same driving forces.
B. place about the same emphasis on each distribution channel.
C. use the same key success factors to differentiate their products.
D. employ similar competitive approaches and occupy similar positions in the market.
E. have similar size market shares.
Q:
A strategic groupA. consists of those industry members that are growing at about the same rate and have similar product line breadth.B. includes all rival firms having comparable profitability.C. is a cluster of industry rivals that have similar competitive approaches and market positions.D. consists of those firms whose market shares are about the same size.E. is made up of those firms having comparable profit margins.
Q:
A(n) _____ should be a member of the internal team that sets the objectives for the project in case specific proposals for plan modifications and additional funding need to be made later on.a. business manager b. Web programmerc. application specialist d. content creator
Q:
Project management is best defined as:a. a technique in which each project is monitoredas if it were an investment in a financial portfolio. b. the process of helping employees cope with changes in an information system project.c. a collection of formal techniques for planning and controlling the activities undertaken to achieve a specific goal. d. a formal review of a project after it is up and running to gather lessons learned from both successful and unsuccessful projects.
Q:
An industry's driving forces
A. are generally determined by competitive pressures, the sizes of strategic groups, and the power of rival firms' competitive strategies.
B. generally act in ways that will strengthen or weaken market demand, make competition more or less intense, and lead to higher or lower industry profitability.
C. frequently cause a leveling off of industry growth and a reduction in the bargaining power of buyers.
D. are normally triggered by ups and downs in the economy, higher or lower inflation rates, higher or lower interest rates, or important new strategic alliances.
E. can be triggered by such factors as growing competitive pressures from substitute products, greater seller-supplier collaboration, and the efforts of rival firms to employ new or different offensive strategies.
Q:
Which one of the following is not a common type of driving force?
A. entry or exit of major firms
B. changing societal concerns, attitudes, and lifestyles
C. diffusion of technical know-how across more companies and more countries
D. increasing efforts on the part of industry members to collaborate closely with their suppliers
E. technological change and manufacturing process innovation
Q:
An approach of outsourcing the maintenance of an electronic commerce system after it has become a stable part of business operations of a company is called _____.a. partial outsourcing b. early outsourcingc. late outsourcing d. component outsourcing
Q:
Which of the following do not qualify as potential driving forces capable of inducing fundamental changes in industry and competitive conditions?
A. changes in who buys the product and how they use it, changes in the long-term industry growth rate, and changes in cost and efficiency
B. entry or exit of major firms, product innovation, and marketing innovation
C. increases in the economic power and bargaining leverage of customers and suppliers, growing supplier-seller collaboration, and growing buyer-seller collaboration
D. diffusion of technical know-how and changing societal concerns, attitudes, and lifestyles
E. changes in manufacturing processes brought on by technological change, increasing globalization of the industry, and new Internet capabilities
Q:
The value of the accumulated mass of employees'knowledge about the business and its processes is known as _____.a. stock value b. intellectual capitalc. return on investment d. total cost of ownership
Q:
Which of the following are most unlikely to qualify as driving forces?
A. changes in the long-term industry growth rate, the entry or exit of major firms, and changes in cost and efficiency
B. increasing globalization of the industry and product innovation
C. new Internet technology applications, new government regulations, and significant changes in government policy toward the industry
D. mounting competition from substitutes and increasing efforts to collaborate with suppliers via strategic alliances
E. changes in who buys the industry's product and how they use it
Q:
A downside of using internal incubators for technology development is that:a. technology developed by the company would be controlled by the parent company. b. the company has to reinvest in a new incubator candidate if the existing one has obtained venture capital financing.c. the company has to develop technology which will not be used by their own business operations. d. technology developed in the incubator will never be launched.
Q:
Which of the following is not generally a "driving force" capable of producing fundamental changes in industry and competitive conditions?
A. Changes in the long-term industry growth rate
B. Increasing globalization of the industry
C. Product innovation and technological change
D. Ups and downs in the economy and interest rates
E. New government regulations or significant changes in government policy toward the industry
Q:
_____ is an example of a commercial project management software product.a. Oracle Linux b. Microsoft Silverlightc. Microsoft Office d. Oracle Primavera
Q:
A company's top technology manager is its _____.a. operations manager b. human resource managerc. systems analyst d. chief information officer
Q:
Driving forces analysisA. involves identifying the driving forces, assessing whether their impact will make the industry more or less attractive, and determining what strategy changes a company may need to make to prepare for the impact of the driving forces.B. identifies which strategic group is the most powerful.C. helps managers identify which industry member is likely to become (or remain) the industry leader and why.D. helps managers identify which key success factors are most likely to help their company gain a competitive advantage.E. helps managers identify which of the five competitive forces will be the strongest driver of industry change.