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Management
Q:
The assessment center:
a. is used to select external candidates.
b. is a content-valid simulation of major parts of the managerial job.
c. is most likely to be biased against women and minority groups.
d. essentially involves conducting physical exams and drug tests on candidates.
e. essentially involves running credit checks on prospective employees.
Q:
Teresa, a recruiter, needs to know basic information such as the name, educational background, and the work experience of a candidate she will be interviewing. Teresa can find this information in the candidate's _____.
a. skills inventory
b. job description
c. job specification
d. application blank
e. replacement chart
Q:
A job application blank should not contain questions about an applicant's_____.
a. previous work history
b. educational background
c. national origin
d. age
e. personal interests
Q:
Nelson recently attended an interview where the HR manager showed him a video of an ordinary work day in the organization and explained in detail the expectations of the job. The HR manager also explained about the criteria for promotions in the company. Although some of the information did not appeal to Nelson, he was sure about what to expect from the job and the company. The organization used the _____ method in the interview.
a. affirmative action
b. training and development
c. job enlargement
d. job specialization
e. realistic job preview
Q:
_____ is defined as determining the extent to which a selection device is really predictive of future jobperformance.
a. Realistic job preview
b. Internal recruitment
c. Job evaluation
d. Validation
e. Job analysis
Q:
Advertising, campus interviews, employment agencies, and union hiring halls are all _____ methods.
a. external recruiting
b. job analysis
c. validation
d. job evaluation
e. realistic job preview
Q:
_____ is the process of attracting qualified persons to apply for jobs that are open.
a. Mentoring
b. Recruiting
c. Job analysis
d. Job evaluation
e. Validation
Q:
While matching human resource supply and demand, managers can handle predicted shortfalls by _____.
a. avoiding the employment of new employees
b. convincing individuals who are approaching retirement to stay on
c. not replacing people who have quit
d. laying off employees
e. reducing the benefits provided to employees
Q:
Jason, a manager, is working on a new project that involves a lot of statistics. Jason is looking for employees with a background in statistics. He can find this information in the _____ of his company.
a. article of incorporation
b. job description
c. job specification
d. skills inventory
e. replacement chart
Q:
Jennifer, the CEO of Phoenix Corp., is planning to build an internal design team for the company. She is looking for employees within the company who have the expertise and an interest in designing. Jennifer can find this information in the _____.
a. replacement chart
b. job specification
c. skills inventory
d. job description
e. article of incorporation
Q:
The CEO of Redd Inc. needs to know the names of the line managers in the company who will soon be ready to take up positions in middle management. The CEO can obtain this information from the _____.
a. demand forecast
b. job analysis
c. supply forecast
d. job evaluation
e. replacement chart
Q:
A(n) _____ lists each important managerial position in an organization, who occupies it, how long he or she willprobably remain in the position, and who is or will be a qualified fill-in.
a. skills inventory
b. employee information system
c. enterprise resource planning system
d. replacement chart
e. Gantt chart
Q:
You are reading a document that says that a job applicant must have good writing skills, be a citizen of theUnited States, and have a degree in management. You are reading a(n) _____.
a. article of incorporation
b. job analysis
c. job description
d. replacement chart
e. job specification
Q:
A job description is most likely to provide information about:
a. the skills of an existing employee.
b. the tools, materials, and equipment used to perform the job.
c. the educational background of an applicant.
d. the personal profile of a supervisor.
e. thekind of skills that a job demands.
Q:
A(n) _____ is usually computerized and contains information on each employee's education, work experience, and career aspirations.
a. bona fide occupational qualification
b. article of incorporation
c. skills inventory
d. statement of qualification
e. job description
Q:
The _____ lists the skills, abilities, and other credentials needed to do a job.
a. article of incorporation
b. replacement chart
c. job description
d. job specification
e. statement of qualification
Q:
The _____ lists the duties of a job, the job's working conditions, and the tools, materials, and equipment used to perform it.
a. job specification
b. job description
c. replacement chart
d. statement of qualification
e. article of incorporation
Q:
Which of the following is the first step in human resource planning?
a. Assessing external and internal trends
b. Predicting demand
c. Forecasting supply
d. Comparing future demand and internal supply
e. Planning a response to predicted shortfalls or overstaffing
Q:
_____ is a systematized procedure for collecting and recording information about jobs within an organization.
a. Job analysis
b. Job evaluation
c. Job specialization
d. Job enrichment
e. Job enlargement
Q:
The _____, passed in 1938 and amended frequently since then, sets a minimum wage and requires the payment of overtime rates for work in excess of 40 hours per week.
a. National Labor Relations Act
b. Labor Management Relations Act
c. National Labor Relations Act
d. Occupational Safety and Health Act
e. Fair Labor Standards Act
Q:
The Americans with Disabilities Act:
a. allows passive discrimination against individuals with disabilities.
b. requires employers to pay higher wages to employees with disabilities.
c. requires employers to provide reasonable accommodations for employees with disabilities.
d. requires employers to provide 24 weeks of unpaid leave to employees with disabilities.
e. requires employers to eliminate policies that support affirmative action.
Q:
_____ also contains the National Emergency Strike provision, which allows the president of the United States to prevent or end a strike that endangers national security.
a. The Civil Rights Act of 1991
b. Title IV of the Sarbanes Oxley Act
c. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970
d. The Taft"Hartley Act
e. The Kennedy-Hawkins Act
Q:
The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 requires employers to provide up to _____ for family and medical emergencies.
a. six months of paid leave
b. 12 weeks of unpaid leave
c. 15 weeks of paid leave
d. one year of unpaid leave
e. one year of paid leave
Q:
Which of the following laws limits union power and specifies management rights during union-organizing campaign?
a. The National Labor Relations Act
b. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974
c. The Fair Labor Standards Act
d. The Labor Management Relations Act
e. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970
Q:
The _____ sets up a procedure for employees to vote on whether to have a union.
a. National Labor Relations Act
b. Labor Management Relations Act
c. Taft"Hartley Act
d. Civil Rights Act of 1991
e. Fair Labor Standards Act
Q:
The Civil Rights Act of 1991:
a. limits union powers.
b. mandates affirmative action in all private business firms.
c. limits punitive damages in lawsuits.
d. allows passive discrimination.
e. sets standards for product packaging
Q:
The Civil Rights Act of 1991:
a. increases punitive damages in lawsuits.
b. makes it easier for employees to sue an organization for discrimination.
c. requires employers to provide up to 12 weeks of paid leave for family and medical emergencies.
d. limits union powers.
e. sets standards for safe working conditions.
Q:
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act:
a. exclusively protects the elderly belonging to minority groups from discrimination.
b. sets a minimum wage for the elderly and requires overtime pay for work in excess of 40 hours per week.
c. protects individuals below the age of 25 years from discrimination.
d. requires affirmative action.
e. requires passive nondiscrimination.
Q:
Employment requirements such as test scores and other qualifications are legally defined as having a(n) _____ onminorities and women when such individuals meet or pass the requirement at a rate less than 80 percent of the rateof majority group members.
a. affirmative action
b. adverse impact
c. confirmatory action
d. lien
e. divergent impact
Q:
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act forbids discrimination against workers above which of the following ages?
a. 40
b. 45
c. 50
d. 55
e. 65
Q:
A medical student belonging to a minority ethnic group was selected for an internship program at a hospital even though he had lower grades and test scores than other applicants. This scenario illustrates:
a. confirmatory bias.
b. employment at will.
c. affirmative action.
d. source monitoring error.
e. equal employment opportunity.
Q:
_____ is defined as intentionally seeking and hiring qualified or qualifiable employees from racial, sexual, and ethnic groups that are underrepresented in an organization.
a. Affirmative action
b. Direct form of discrimination
c. Indirect form of discrimination
d. Adverse impact
e. Validation
Q:
When an organization uses an employment test that the majority ethnic group is known to pass at a higher rate than minority groups , it is exhibiting _____.
a. an indirect form of discrimination
b. equal employment opportunity
c. affirmative action
d. a direct form of discrimination
e. a realistic job preview
Q:
Match the following numbered items with the most correct response letter.A response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.a. Organization structure and designb. Technology and operations changec. People changeEnterprise resource planning
Q:
Match the following numbered items with the most correct response letter.A response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.a. Organization structure and designb. Technology and operations changec. People changeCulture
Q:
Match the following numbered items with the most correct response letter.A response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.a. Organization structure and designb. Technology and operations changec. People changeControl system
Q:
Match the following numbered items with the most correct response letter.A response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.a. Organization structure and designb. Technology and operations changec. People changePerceptions
Q:
Match the following numbered items with the most correct response letter.A response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.a. Organization structure and designb. Technology and operations changec. People changeDepartmentalization
Q:
Match the following numbered items with the most correct response letter.A response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.a. Diagnostic activitiesb. Intergroup activitiesc. Process consultationd. Team buildinge. Survey feedbackThe aim of this approach is usually to change the behavior of supervisors by showing them how their subordinates view them.
Q:
Match the following numbered items with the most correct response letter.A response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.a. Diagnostic activitiesb. Intergroup activitiesc. Process consultationd. Team buildinge. Survey feedbackAn OD consultant observes groups in the organization to develop an understanding of their communication patterns, decision-making and leadership processes.
Q:
Match the following numbered items with the most correct response letter.A response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.a. Diagnostic activitiesb. Intergroup activitiesc. Process consultationd. Team buildinge. Survey feedbackFocuses on improving interdependent group relationships
Q:
Match the following numbered items with the most correct response letter.A response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.a. Diagnostic activitiesb. Intergroup activitiesc. Process consultationd. Team buildinge. Survey feedbackAnalyzes the current conditions of an organization
Q:
Match the following numbered items with the most correct response letter.A response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.a. Diagnostic activitiesb. Intergroup activitiesc. Process consultationd. Team buildinge. Survey feedbackEnhances the effectiveness of people working in groups
Q:
Name and define the three intrapreneurial roles in large organizations.
Q:
Define the term "organization development," and briefly describe the basic assumptions on which OD efforts are based.
Q:
Describe the four techniques used by organizations to overcome employee resistance to change.
Q:
_____ are new products, services, or technologies developed by an organization thatcompletely replace the existing products, services,or technologies in an industry.
Q:
The managed effortof an organization todevelop newproducts or servicesor new uses forexisting products orservices is known as _____.
Q:
The first stage in the organizational innovation process is _____.
Q:
_____ is an OD technique that involves mediation to resolve problems or conflicts among individuals or groups.
Q:
_____ is a planned effort that is organization-wide, managed from the top, and intended to increase organizational effectiveness and health through planned interventions in the organization's process, using behavioral science knowledge.
Q:
_____ is the radical redesign of all aspects of a business to achieve major gains in cost, service or time.
Q:
_____ is a large-scale information system for integrating and synchronizing the many activities in an extended enterprise.
Q:
The technique generally thought to be most effective in dealing with resistance to change is _____.
Q:
The process of studying a change situation to see which factors support and which factors hinder the change process and then trying to eliminate or at least minimize the forces that will hinder change is known as _____ analysis.
Q:
In _____, each employee responds to a questionnaireintended to measure perceptions and attitudes.
Q:
A(n) _____ is usually a middle manager who learns about a new project and becomes committed to it. He helps overcome organizational resistance to change and convinces others to take the innovation seriously.
a. product champion
b. inventor
c. sponsor
d. venture capitalist
e. transformational leader
Q:
A(n) _____ is a person who actually conceives of and develops the new idea,product, or service by means of the creative process.
a. inventor
b. sponsor
c. product champion
d. angel investor
e. venture capitalist
Q:
A(n) _____ is a top-level manager who approves of and supports a project. This person may fight for the budget needed to develop an idea, overcome arguments against a project, and use organizational politics to ensure the project's survival.
a. product champion
b. inventor
c. innovation champion
d. investor
e. sponsor
Q:
_____ is one of the three specific ways for promoting innovation in organizations.
a. Organization culture
b. Organization development
c. Enterprise resource planning
d. Force-field analysis
e. Division of labor
Q:
A(n) _____ is a change in the appearance or performance of a product or service or of the physical processes through which a product or service is manufactured.
a. technical innovation
b. incremental innovation
c. radical innovation
d. mechanical innovation
e. managerial innovation
Q:
_____ are changes in the way products or services are manufactured, created, or distributed.
a. Process innovations
b. Operational innovations
c. Radical innovations
d. Mechanical innovations
e. Managerial innovations
Q:
_____ are new products, services, or technologies developed by an organization that completely replace the existing products, services, or technologies in an industry.
a. Process innovations
b. Incremental innovations
c. Radical innovations
d. Mechanical innovations
e. Managerial innovations
Q:
During which phase of the organizational innovation process do most organizations have access to an innovation and apply it in the same way?
a. Innovation development
b. Innovation maturity
c. Innovation launch
d. Innovation growth
e. Innovation application
Q:
_____ is the stage of the innovation process at which an organization introduces new products or services to the marketplace.
a. Innovation development
b. Application launch
c. Innovation application
d. Application growth
e. Innovation maturity
Q:
_____ is the managed effort of an organization to develop new products or services or new uses for existing products or services
a. Divestiture
b. Innovation
c. Reverse engineering
d. Job deskilling
e. Contingency management
Q:
The first stage of the organizational innovation process is _____ of creative ideas.
a. growth
b. maturity
c. launch
d. development
e. application
Q:
_____ is an organization development (OD) technique that helps employees formulate their personal goals and evaluate strategies for integrating their goals with the goals of the organization.
a. Process consultation
b. Third-party peacemaking
c. Team building
d. Life and career planning
e. Counseling
Q:
In the context of organization development techniques, coaching and counseling:
a. focus on how an individual is performing today.
b. provide nonevaluative feedback to individuals.
c. provide assistance to individuals with achieving non-work-related objectives.
d. are designed for managers and not executive employees.
e. focus exclusively on increasing productivity.
Q:
Zen Electricals Inc. has internal experts who help executives learn about how others see them and improve theirperformance in the future. The company is using the organization development technique called _____.
a. technostructural activities
b. process consultation
c. team building
d. coaching and counseling
e. third-party peacemaking
Q:
Leading Edge Software Inc. has introduced a new activity called "Group Farming" in which the company's executivegroups participate in farming activities for three hours every month. This activity has been designed by the companyto emphasize the importance of interdependence and coordination among its employees. Which of the following organization developmenttechniques is the company using?
a. Third-party peacemaking
b. Process consultation
c. Team building
d. Survey feedback
e. Coaching and counseling
Q:
Which of the following is a possible diagnostic activity in organization development?
a. Enterprise resource planning
b. Attitude surveys
c. Force-field analysis
d. Job shadowing
e. Reverse engineering
Q:
_____ are aimed at analyzing the current condition of an organization; this approach involves using questionnaires, opinion surveys, interviews, archival data, and meetings to assess the various characteristics of the organization.
a. Life and career planning activities
b. Technostructural activities
c. Third-party peacemaking activities
d. Diagnostic activities
e. Process consultation activities
Q:
Libra Technologies Inc. frequently asks its employees to measure such things as supervisor effectiveness. The company circulates various questionnaires among all its employees to get their insights. Which organization development is illustrated in the scenario?
a. Third-party peacemaking
b. Survey feedback
c. Team building
d. Process consultation
e. Force-field analysis
Q:
Which of the following is one of the assumptions on which the theory and practice of organization development (OD) are based?
a. Employees tend to perform well when micromanagement techniques are used.
b. The total organization and the way it is designed influence the way individuals behave within theorganization.
c. All employees have a strong need to control and influence their colleagues and the organization's workprocesses.
d. Employees naturally dislike their work and lack ambition.
e. A successful corporate leader is one who adopts an autocratic style of leadership to control his subordinates.
Q:
The reengineering process can be made effective by:
a. adopting a hands-off leadership style.
b. extensively using micromanagement leadership techniques.
c. adopting a strong but not autocratic leadership style.
d. eliminating any sense of urgency in the organization.
e. limiting employee participation in the process.
Q:
Which of the following can help make the business change process more effective?
a. Limiting employee involvement in the process
b. Refraining from creating a sense of urgency in the organization
c. Starting the process with a new, clean slate
d. Limiting communication channels
e. Refraining from changing company strategies
Q:
Which of the following can help make the reengineering process more effective?
a. Limiting communication
b. Creating a sense of urgency in the organization
c. Adopting a highly centralized organizational structure
d. Refraining from making extensive changes
e. Limiting employee involvement in the process
Q:
In the reengineering process, the first step involves:
a. setting goals and developing a strategy.
b. emphasizing top management's commitment to reengineering.
c. implementing the chosen strategy across the organization.
d. optimizing top-down and bottom-up perspectives.
e. creating a sense of urgency among managers.
Q:
Which of the following is true of business process changes?a. Business process change should not be carried out during a phase of entropy.b. Business process change requires a careful blend of top-down and bottom-up involvement.c. Centralization must be adopted by the top management for the business processchange to be successful.d. Employee participation should be minimal during a business process change.e. Successful business process change is not accompanied by a sense of urgency.