Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Management
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding management and national culture is the most correct?
A) The basic principles of management are universal.
B) Research shows that managerial practices across all countries are not consistent.
C) There are major differences in the way that most English speaking countries view management.
D) The route of the differences between how countries practice management is based on their economic principles solely.
Q:
Unlike the manager of a small business, the most important concerns of a manager in a large organization are focused ________.
A) externally, particularly on entrepreneurial tasks
B) internally, particularly on the allocation of resources
C) on setting goals
D) on planning ways to improve organizational structure
Q:
Compared to the manager of a large organization, a small business manager is more likely to be a(n) ________.
A) specialist
B) figurehead
C) generalist
D) information monitor
Q:
Which of the following is NOT considered an interpersonal skill for a manager as suggested by Katz?
A) communicating
B) mentoring
C) delegating
D) decisiveness
Q:
Why might a manager for a non-profit organization seem as concerned with his or her organization's financial well-being as a for-profit manager?
A) Non-profit managers are evaluated on financial performance only.
B) Non-profit managers try to give the illusion that they care about the "bottom line."
C) Not-for-profit organizations need to make money to continue operating.
D) Non-profit organizations have an obligation to turn a profit.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a small business?
A) has more formal managers than a large business
B) has about 200 employees
C) is not a "player" with impact within its industry
D) has a relatively small market share of its product
Q:
In a small organization, which of the following is NOT likely to be true?
A) Planning is not likely to be an orchestrated ritual.
B) Relationships are more likely to be informal.
C) Workers are likely to be observed by computerized monitoring systems.
D) The design of the organization is likely to be less structured and complex.
Q:
The role of ________ is more important for managers of small organizations than for managers working in large corporations.
A) disseminator
B) spokesperson
C) entrepreneur
D) resource allocator
Q:
Non-profit organizations are different from for-profit organizations primarily ________.
A) in the way make decisions
B) in the way they measure success
C) in the way they motivate employees
D) in how they hire employees
Q:
The managerial role that changes the most between middle and top managers is ________.
A) planning
B) organizing
C) controlling
D) leading
Q:
One managerial function that is identical in both Fayol's and Mintzberg's systems is ________.
A) leader
B) resource allocator
C) monitor
D) negotiator
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an example of a decisional role according to Mintzberg?
A) spokesperson
B) entrepreneur
C) disturbance handler
D) resource allocator
Q:
All of the following are examples of informational roles according to Mintzberg EXCEPT ________.
A) entrepreneur
B) monitor
C) disseminator
D) spokesperson
Q:
The four managerial functions first described by Fayol are considered the "best" because ________.
A) they were devised a long time ago
B) most sources still use them
C) they date back to ancient Greece and Rome
D) they are no longer popular today
Q:
The current research on managerial skill points to four general management skills. Which of the following is NOT one of the four skills?
A) Political
B) Interpersonal
C) Conceptual
D) Scientific
Q:
The emphasis that managers give to various activities is generally based on their ________.
A) organizational level
B) tenure with the organization
C) experience in their field
D) skill specialty
Q:
A finance manager who reads the Wall Street Journal on a regular basis would be performing which role?
A) leader
B) monitor
C) disseminator
D) liaison
Q:
A pharmaceutical company manager attending a meeting of academic scientists would be functioning in which role?
A) informational
B) figurehead
C) liaison
D) decisional
Q:
According to Mintzberg, which of the following fit into the category of interpersonal roles?
A) figurehead, leader, and liaison
B) negotiator, liaison, and figurehead
C) monitor, leader, and resource allocator
D) disturbance handler, liaison, and negotiator
Q:
Mintzberg developed his ten managerial roles by ________.
A) sending out questionnaires to thousands of managers
B) observing hundreds of managers over several years
C) closely monitoring the work activities of five chief executives
D) using common sense to analyze the situation
Q:
Giving a speech at an organization banquet would fall into which Mintzberg category?
A) informational
B) interpersonal
C) decisional
D) entrepreneurial
Q:
________ developed a categorization scheme for defining what managers do, consisting of 10 different but highly interrelated roles.
A) Henri Fayol
B) Robert L. Katz
C) Henry Mintzberg
D) Henry Ford
Q:
An important part of the controlling function is ________.
A) evaluating
B) structuring
C) coordinating
D) punishing
Q:
Resolving a conflict would be considered to fall under which managerial function?
A) controlling
B) planning
C) directing
D) leading
Q:
Organizing includes ________.
A) defining organizational goals
B) resolving conflicts
C) motivating organizational members
D) determining who does what tasks
Q:
The controlling management function is largely a matter of ________.
A) resolving conflicts
B) determining what needs to be done
C) monitoring to see that tasks are accomplished
D) enforcing rules for employees
Q:
Which of the following is NOT considered to be a part of the planning function of a manager?
A) defining goals
B) motivating
C) mapping out strategy
D) making decisions
Q:
How many management functions were originally proposed by Henri Fayol?
A) three: plan, organize, lead
B) four: plan, organize, lead, control
C) five: plan, organize, command, coordinate, control
D) ten: 3 interpersonal, 3 informational, 4 decisional
Q:
Today, the basic management functions are considered to be ________.
A) planning, coordinating, leading, and monitoring
B) planning, organizing, leading, and motivating
C) commanding, organizing, leading, and decision making
D) planning, organizing, leading, and controlling
Q:
In a short essay, explain through examples how a process can be (a) efficient but not effective and (b) effective but not efficient.
Q:
In a short essay, discuss the difference between efficiency and effectiveness.
Q:
The four contemporary management processes are planning, organizing, leading, and commanding.
Q:
Managers who are effective at meeting organizational goals always act efficiently.
Q:
Effectiveness refers to the attainment of the organization's goals.
Q:
A goal of efficiency is to minimize output costs while maximizing input costs.
Q:
Effectiveness refers to the relationship between inputs and outputs.
Q:
Joe, the Manager (Scenario)As a production supervisor, Joe determines the number of output units his department will produce each week. On Monday, he informs his team that the schedule is going to be difficult this week due to the increased number of output units. He goes on to tell them that he is confident that they can fulfill the schedule because they are tough, talented, and "when the going gets tough, they are the ones who get going." Each day during the week, Joe checks the amount of output that the employees have completed and the number of units that have been rejected.When Joe decides the number of output units his team will be able to produce this week, which management process is he performing?A) controllingB) leadingC) planningD) organizing
Q:
The Perfect Manager (Scenario)Brenda Kraft has proven herself to be an able manager. Her section has a high project completion rate with the highest-quality product and the lowest defects in her division. In addition, she accomplishes this with fewer full-time people than other managers. Co-workers say that the secret of her success is in her ability to determine what needs to be done and by whom, and her understanding of the basic "management processes."Brenda's ability to determine what needs to be done and by whom is evidence that she excels at which management function?A) planningB) controllingC) leadingD) organizing
Q:
Which of the following did Taylor NOT find "appalling" in his study of workers in steel companies?A) Workers "took it easy" on the job.B) Workers employed different techniques for the same job.C) Workers would only attempt to perform a job if they were shown to have aptitude for it.D) Worker output was only about one-third of what was possible.
Q:
A major contribution that Taylor made to the study of management was ________.
A) to measure efficiency on a 4-star scale
B) to identify the one best way to get a job done
C) to identify the three best ways to get a job done
D) to measure inefficiency on a 4-star scale
Q:
Taylor began to develop his theory of ________ after a result of viewing workers in steel companies.
A) the functions of management
B) ethics-based management
C) management skills
D) scientific management
Q:
The "father" of scientific management was ________.
A) Henri Fayol
B) Robert L. Katz
C) Henry Mintzberg
D) Frederick Winslow Taylor
Q:
A candy manufacturer that made candy at a lower cost without improving the quality of the candy could be said to ________.
A) increase effectiveness without increasing efficiency
B) increase efficiency without increasing effectiveness
C) increase both effectiveness and efficiency
D) decrease both effectiveness and efficiency
Q:
A candy manufacturer would increase both efficiency and effectiveness by making ________.
A) better candy at the same cost
B) better candy at a lower cost
C) the same candy at a lower cost
D) the same candy at the same cost
Q:
Good management strives for ________.
A) low efficiency and high effectiveness
B) high efficiency and low effectiveness
C) high efficiency and high effectiveness
D) moderate efficiency and moderate effectiveness
Q:
Efficiency refers to ________.
A) the relationship between inputs and outputs
B) the additive relationship between inputs and outputs
C) the inverse relationship between inputs and outputs
D) decreasing inputs only
Q:
Effectiveness is synonymous with ________.
A) cost minimization
B) smart management
C) goal attainment
D) efficiency
Q:
Another term for effectiveness is ________.
A) doing the right things
B) doing things right
C) doing things intelligently
D) doing things when necessary
Q:
Which of the following might be an example of increased efficiency in manufacturing?
A) cutting the amount of labor required to make the product
B) cutting the price of the product
C) increasing sales of the product
D) increasing advertising for the product
Q:
Another term for efficiency is ________.
A) doing the right things
B) doing things right
C) making sure things get done
D) doing things at the right time
Q:
In a short essay, compare the tasks, priorities, and responsibilities of first-line, middle, and top managers.
Q:
Supervisors and team leaders may both be considered first-line managers.
Q:
A manager does not work directly on tasks for the organization.
Q:
In order to be considered a manager, an individual must direct or oversee the work of others.
Q:
All organizations have a structure that in some ways serves to define and limit the behavior of members of the organization.
Q:
Part of what defines an organization is its purpose.
Q:
If Brenda accomplished her projects on time with high-quality results, but she took more time than other managers in the process, you could say that as a manager she was ________.
A) efficient, but not effective
B) a leader, but not a top manager
C) project oriented, but not effective
D) effective, but not efficient
Q:
Brenda's high project completion rate indicates that she is ________.
A) an efficient manager
B) an effective manager
C) a good spokesperson
D) a good resource allocator
Q:
Which of the following levels of management is associated with positions such as executive vice president, chief operating officer, chief executive officer, and chairperson of the board?
A) team leaders
B) middle managers
C) first-line managers
D) top managers
Q:
All levels of management between the supervisory level and the top level of the organization are termed ________.
A) middle managers
B) first-line managers
C) supervisors
D) team leaders
Q:
Of the following, which is the lowest level of management?
A) a nonmanagerial employee
B) an individual involved in defining the organization's philosophy
C) a vice president
D) a middle manager
Q:
Which of the following identifies a manager who does NOT typically supervise other managers?
A) unit chief
B) shift manager
C) vice president
D) division manager
Q:
Which is an important job responsibility for a middle manager?
A) defining the organization's long-term goals
B) translating goals defined by top managers into action
C) helping top managers define goals
D) performing tasks that are not related to long-term goals
Q:
Which of the following types of managers is responsible for making organization-wide decisions and establishing the plans and goals that affect the entire organization?
A) team leader
B) top manager
C) department head
D) project leader
Q:
Supervisor is another name for which of the following?
A) team leader
B) middle manager
C) first-line manager
D) top manager
Q:
The work of a manager ________.
A) is strictly limited to overseeing and monitoring the work of others
B) may involve performing tasks that are not related to overseeing others
C) involves only high-level tasks that require a sophisticated skill set
D) does not involve interaction with nonmanagerial employees
Q:
The primary job of a manager is to ________.
A) make decisions that help an organization grow
B) tackle tasks that are too difficult for nonmanagerial employees
C) coordinate between organization leaders and ordinary employees
D) direct and oversee the work of others
Q:
Which of the following is a key difference between managerial and nonmanagerial employees?
A) Managerial employees receive higher pay compensation.
B) Nonmanagerial employees have less formal education.
C) Nonmanagerial employees do not oversee the work of others.
D) Managerial employees work longer hours.
Q:
A fraternity is an example of an organization because it is comprised of people who ________.
A) share the same values, traditions, and customs
B) share the same goals and values
C) share goals and function within a common structure
D) function under the same set of rules and regulations
Q:
One of the common characteristics of all organizations is ________ that define(s) rules, regulations, and values of the organization.
A) a set of written bylaws
B) an explicit goal
C) a systematic structure
D) a stated purpose
Q:
All organizations have ________ that define(s) the organization's purpose and reason for existing.
A) limits
B) rules
C) structure
D) goals
Q:
An organization is ________.
A) the physical location where people work
B) any collection of people who perform similar tasks
C) a deliberate arrangement of people to accomplish some specific purpose
D) a group of individuals focused on profit-making for their shareholders
Q:
Which of the following is a common myth about the study of management?
A) Management is just common sense.
B) Managers need to be well disciplined in all of the business areas.
C) Managers are found in all types of organizations, large and small.
D) Many of today's managers are minorities.
Q:
What is a divestiture? Describe the two common types of divestitures. What types of businesses should be divested?
Q:
What is restructuring? Why might a firm restructure? What are some of the common restructuring techniques?
Q:
What is a strategic control system? What is the difference between feedforward and feedback controls?
Q:
A firm's business cycle orientation includes:
A. Forecasting resources
B. Business-cycle sensitive management principles
C. Business cycle literacy
D. Supportive organizational culture
E. All of the above
Q:
Which of the following is a common outcome from leveraged buyouts?
A. Work force stabilization or increase
B. Opening of new plants
C. Increase in debt
D. Low financial returns for the executives who initiate the buyouts
E. Increased innovation and R&D
Q:
Chapter XI reorganization:
A. Means that an organization must liquidate its assets
B. Means that some management decisions must be approved by a court
C. Is intended for companies that have lots of liquid assets but are locked into an unfair labor contract
D. Is most successful if an organization has very high debt levels
E. None of the above
Q:
Which of the following provides an opportunity for an organization to work out a plan for solving its financial problems under the supervision of a federal court?
A. Prepackaged reorganization strategy
B. Chapter XIII bankruptcy
C. Restructuring
D. Downscoping
E. Chapter XI reorganization