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Q:
Volunteered statements _____.
a. should be interrupted for Miranda warnings
b. need not be interrupted for Miranda warnings
c. need to be interrupted for Miranda warnings if the Edwards rule applies
d. need to be interrupted for Miranda warnings if the person is in custody
Q:
The Supreme Court has stated the "questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a person has been taken into custody or otherwise deprived of his freedom of action in any significant way" is known as _____.
a. custodial interrogation
b. superficial interrogation
c. confessions
d. interviews
Q:
The 911 emergency telephone number system was introduced by AT&T in:
a. 1968
b. 1945
c. 1985
d. 1986
Q:
The 911 emergency telephone number system was introduced by AT&T in:
a. 1968
b. 1945
c. 1985
d. 1986
Q:
For law enforcement purposes, the acronym CAD means:
a. computer-assisted dispatching
b. computer-aided dispatch
c. computer-assisted dispatch
d. centralized audio dispatch
Q:
For law enforcement purposes, the acronym CAD means:
a. computer-assisted dispatching
b. computer-aided dispatch
c. computer-assisted dispatch
d. centralized audio dispatch
Q:
DNA "dragnets" are similar to?
a. police line-ups
b. search warrants
c. police roadblocks or checkpoints
d. indictments
Q:
Interrogation means _____.
a. police questioning
b. that a person is in custody and questioned about anything
c. even volunteered statements to police
d. any words or actions by police that they should know are reasonably likely to elicit an incriminating response from the suspect
Q:
DNA "dragnets" are similar to?
a. police line-ups
b. search warrants
c. police roadblocks or checkpoints
d. indictments
Q:
In which of the following circumstances must the police observe the requirements imposed by the Miranda rule?
a. the suspect is in custody at the time of the interrogation.
b. the interrogation takes place at the police station
c. the suspect has already been charged with the offense for which he or she is being interrogated
d. the suspect is in custody at the time of the interrogation and the interrogation takes place at the police station
Q:
An officer is conducting an investigation and has become particularly suspicious of a certain person to the point of concentrating all the investigative methods and inquiries on proving that that suspect is the perpetrator. The officer is about to question the suspect (who does not realize she is suspected of the crime) in the suspect's home. For any statements to be admissible, _____.
a. the officer must give Miranda warnings because custody exists when he starts the questioning
b. the officer must give Miranda warnings because the suspect is the focus of the investigation
c. the officer must give Miranda warnings if he informs the person she is a suspect
d. the officer need not give Miranda warnings even if he informs the person she is a suspect, so long as the officer does not create a coercive atmosphere
Q:
The first police department with a computer system (in 1964) was:
a. New York City
b. San Francisco
c. Los Angeles
d. St. Louis
Q:
The first police department with a computer system (in 1964) was:
a. New York City
b. San Francisco
c. Los Angeles
d. St. Louis
Q:
Reverse 911 allows the police to contact the community in the event of an emergency to provide pertinent information.
Q:
Reverse 911 allows the police to contact the community in the event of an emergency to provide pertinent information.
Q:
A cold hit is a DNA sample collected from a crime scene that ties an unknown suspect to the DNA profile of someone in the national or a state's database.
Q:
A cold hit is a DNA sample collected from a crime scene that ties an unknown suspect to the DNA profile of someone in the national or a state's database.
Q:
In which situation would the suspect be considered "in custody" for Miranda warning purposes?
a. while being questioned during an investigatory stop
b. while being transported to the police station in a patrol car subsequent to an arrest
c. while being questioned in jail by a police undercover agent posing as an inmate
d. while being questioned during an investigatory stop and frisk
Q:
Latent prints are impressions left on evidence.
Q:
What "test" is used to determine if a person is in custody?
a. if the officer intends to arrest the suspect
b. if the suspect doesn"t feel free to leave
c. if a reasonable person wouldn"t feel free to leave
d. if the detention is more than brief questioning
Q:
Latent prints are impressions left on evidence.
Q:
Nearly half of all 911 calls are made from cell phones.
Q:
Nearly half of all 911 calls are made from cell phones.
Q:
What conditions must be present to trigger Miranda warnings?
a. accusation and confinement
b. intelligently and knowingly
c. custody and interrogation
d. reasonable suspicion and detention
Q:
A major problem with DNA today is the growing backlog of DNA cases.
Q:
A major problem with DNA today is the growing backlog of DNA cases.
Q:
Thirty-five out of fifty states require DNA samples from convicted from sex offenders and murderers.
Q:
Thirty-five out of fifty states require DNA samples from convicted from sex offenders and murderers.
Q:
The CIA maintains the national DNA database, whereas each state has three designated database locations, and each participating locality maintains its own local database.
Q:
The CIA maintains the national DNA database, whereas each state has three designated database locations, and each participating locality maintains its own local database.
Q:
The current version of CODIS contains two indexes: a convicted offender index and a forensic index.
Q:
The current version of CODIS contains two indexes: a convicted offender index and a forensic index.
Q:
To have a valid waiver of a person's Miranda rights, the waiver must _____.
a. be voluntarily made and must be made in front of a non "law enforcement officer witness
b. be voluntarily made and must be made with full awareness of the consequences of the waiver
c. be acknowledged by a judge and must be made with full awareness of the consequences of the waiver
d. only be voluntarily made.
Q:
Criminal identification by means of fingerprints is one of the most potent factors in apprehending fugitives who might otherwise escape arrest and continue their criminal activities indefinitely.
Q:
Criminal identification by means of fingerprints is one of the most potent factors in apprehending fugitives who might otherwise escape arrest and continue their criminal activities indefinitely.
Q:
Mitochondrial DNA isn"t as useful for identification as nuclear DNA.
Q:
Mitochondrial DNA isn"t as useful for identification as nuclear DNA.
Q:
Failure to comply with Miranda requirements _____.
a. conclusively establishes voluntariness of a subsequent confession
b. has no bearing on the voluntariness of a subsequent confession
c. conclusively establishes involuntariness of a subsequent confession
d. does not, per se, render a confession involuntary
Q:
Which of the following tactics, if used by police, would be least likely to render a confession involuntary by the courts?
a. Continued interrogation of an injured, depressed, or medicated person in extreme pain in a hospital setting.
b. Deprivation of food or sleep to a suspect.
c. Relay and continued questioning for an extended period of time.
d. A police officer tells a lie about evidence to the suspect during the interrogation.
Q:
DNA has yet to exonerate a convicted offender.
Q:
DNA has yet to exonerate a convicted offender.
Q:
Suspects who are interrogated without being Mirandized first _____.
a. may have the evidence ruled inadmissible, but will not be able to win a Section 1983 civil rights lawsuit
b. may have the evidence ruled inadmissible and may be able to win a Section 1983 civil rights lawsuit
c. will have the evidence ruled admissible, but may be able to win a Section 1983 civil rights lawsuit
d. have no equitable or compensatory recourse available to them
Q:
Which statement is true?
a. In all situations where questioning occurs at a police station, the person questioned is considered "in custody".
b. In all situations where questioning occurs in the interrogation room of a police station, the person questioned is considered "in custody".
c. In all situations where questioning occurs at a jail or in a prison, the person questioned is considered "in custody".
d. "In custody" determinations are not made based entirely on location. Custody is determined by examining, from a reasonable person's point of view, the totality of facts and circumstances surrounding an encounter between a person and law enforcement authorities.
Q:
Automated fingerprint identifications systems began to be developed in the 1980s.
Q:
Automated fingerprint identifications systems began to be developed in the 1980s.
Q:
Computer-aided investigation systems are not very effective in the criminal investigation process and are being abandoned by many police departments in the United States.
Q:
Computer-aided investigation systems are not very effective in the criminal investigation process and are being abandoned by many police departments in the United States.
Q:
Officers place George Jetson under arrest, but they don"t immediately read the Miranda warnings. George immediately breaks down and confesses to the crime without any prompting from the officers. How would the courts most likely view George's confession?
a. inadmissible because when people are placed under arrest, Miranda warnings must be read
b. inadmissible because officers are required to read Miranda warnings whenever dealing with persons during any type of police-citizen interaction
c. admissible because this type of statement is beyond the reach of Miranda
d. admissible because the police did nothing to break the will of the suspect
Q:
____________________ prints are fingerprint impressions left at a crime scene.
Q:
________ technology can be used to search for stolen vehicles, vehicles listed in AMBER Alerts, or vehicles driven by wanted persons.
Q:
____________________ prints are fingerprint impressions left at a crime scene.
Q:
________ technology can be used to search for stolen vehicles, vehicles listed in AMBER Alerts, or vehicles driven by wanted persons.
Q:
When governmental coercion is at issue, most courts examine the voluntariness of a Miranda waiver by inquiring about _____.
a. the suspect's capacity for self-determination was critically impaired
b. whether force was used
c. whether psychological coercion was used
d. whether it was produced by police threats of violence
Q:
Which statement most completely describes the relevant factors in deciding whether the defendant's confession was voluntary?
a. The defendant's intelligence
b. The existence of threats or false promises
c. The location and duration of the interrogation session
d. The defendant's intelligence, the existence of threats or false promises, and the location and duration of the interrogation session
Q:
Trace evidence is analyzed by the ____________________ section of the crime lab.
Q:
The essential ingredient which must be present for a statement to be involuntary is _____.
a. pain
b. police physical brutality
c. police coerciveness in some form
d. suspect's physical or mental impairment
Q:
Alcohol and drugs or controlled substances are analyzed by the ____________________ section of the crime lab.
Q:
Trace evidence is analyzed by the ____________________ section of the crime lab.
Q:
Handwriting analysis is performed by the ____________________ section of the crime lab.
Q:
Alcohol and drugs or controlled substances are analyzed by the ____________________ section of the crime lab.
Q:
Blood and semen evidence is analyzed by the ____________________ section of the crime lab.
Q:
Handwriting analysis is performed by the ____________________ section of the crime lab.
Q:
Police attempt to interrogate a criminal suspect at the police station prior to any court appearance. The suspect states unequivocally that he wants an attorney present during the questioning. Given the scenario, select the true statement.
a. Police can legally attempt to coerce or badger the suspect into waiving his previously asserted Miranda rights while held in uninterrupted Miranda custody since the first refusal to waive.
b. If the suspect is released from Miranda custody and returned to his normal life for some time, generally 14 days, police are legally permitted to attempt the interrogation again.
c. Police can ignore the request for an attorney if the suspect has not been placed under formal arrest.
d. Police cannot attempt an interrogation of the suspect under any circumstances.
Q:
Police detectives begin to interrogate a criminal suspect without having read the Miranda warnings. During this initial questioning, the suspect makes an incriminating statement. The detectives, after hearing the incriminating statement, make the suspect aware of his Miranda rights. Questioning continues and the suspect repeats the incriminating information. How are the courts most likely to view the statement?
a. The incriminating statement is inadmissible.
b. The incriminating statement is admissible, but any derivative evidence that can be gathered from the information in the statement is inadmissible.
c. The incriminating statement is inadmissible, but any derivative evidence that can be gathered from the information in the statement is admissible.
d. The incriminating statement is admissible, as is any derivative evidence that can be gathered from the information in the statement.
Q:
Blood and semen evidence is analyzed by the ____________________ section of the crime lab.
Q:
Gun and bullet evidence is analyzed by the ____________________ section of the crime lab.
Q:
Gun and bullet evidence is analyzed by the ____________________ section of the crime lab.
Q:
DNA is the abbreviation for ____________________.
Q:
A criminal suspect is arrested and subsequently confesses to a crime. The court determines that the Miranda requirements were violated during the interrogation, but that the statements were given voluntarily. At trial, which of the following legal limitations are placed on the prosecution?
a. The prosecution cannot reference any statements from the confession for any reason.
b. The prosecution cannot reference any statements to impeach the defendant's testimony, but can reference the confession during the prosecution's case-in-chief.
c. The prosecution can reference any statements from the confession to impeach the defendant's testimony, but cannot reference the confession during the prosecution's case-in-chief
d. The prosecution can reference the confession during its case-in-chief and to impeach testimony by the defendant.
Q:
Police are questioning a suspect about a crime. Miranda warnings are read to the suspect and the suspect clearly indicates he wishes to remain silent. Which of the following legal limitations are placed on the police?
a. They are, from this point forward, forever barred from asking questions of the suspect related to the crime in question and other crimes.
b. They must immediately, scrupulously respect the decision and stop with questioning, but may, after a significant amount of time passes and after re-reading the Miranda warnings, question the suspect about other crimes.
c. They may ignore verbal requests to remain silent and are only constrained when the request is in writing.
d. They must immediately contact an attorney for the criminal suspect.
Q:
AFIS stands for ____________________.
Q:
DNA is the abbreviation for ____________________.
Q:
After obtaining a waiver of a suspect's rights police start the process of interrogating a criminal suspect about a particular crime. After a few questions are asked, the suspect clearly and unambiguously communicates her desire to talk to an attorney. Which of the following legal limitations are placed on the police?
They cannot, from this point forward, take any steps to deliberately elicit
a. They cannot, from this point forward, take any steps to deliberately elicit incriminating statements, under any circumstances.
b. They cannot, from this point forward, take any steps to deliberately elicitincriminating statements unless the criminal suspect initiates the contact.
c. They can ignore the request because it was not put forth in writing.
d. They can ignore the request because it was made after an initial waiver of rights was secured.
Q:
When considering the issue of waiver of Miranda rights, courts take into consideration _____.
a. the totality of circumstances
b. whether the waiver was voluntary (absence of police coercion)
c. awareness of the right(s) being waived and the consequences of the waiver
d. the totality of circumstances, whether the waiver was voluntary (absence of police coercion), and awareness of the right(s) being waived and the consequences of the waiver
Q:
AFIS stands for ____________________.
Q:
The latest in the use of automated crime analysis is the New York City Police Department's ____________________ program.
Q:
NCIC stands for ____________________.
Q:
A police interrogator conducted an interrogation of Ben Wright without reading him his Miranda warnings. During the interrogation, Mr. Wright voluntarily confessed to a crime and informed the interrogator of the whereabouts of the weapon used in the crime. The weapon was discovered at the provided location, and the suspect's prints were on the weapon. Based on the U.S. Supreme Court interpretation of Miranda, select the true statement.
a. The confession, but not the weapon, will be admitted into evidence.
b. The weapon, but not the confession, will be admitted into evidence.
c. Both the weapon and the confession will be admitted into evidence.
d. Neither the weapon, nor the confession, will be admitted into evidence.
Q:
The latest in the use of automated crime analysis is the New York City Police Department's ____________________ program.
Q:
In police communications systems using____________________, voice communications are replaced by electronic transmissions.