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Law
Q:
Where is most criminal law found?
a. state criminal codes
b. federal criminal codes
c. city criminal codes
d. county criminal codes
Q:
What part of criminal law defines specific crimes and arranges them into groups according to subject matter?
a. general part of criminal law
b. generic part of criminal law
c. specific part of criminal law
d. special part of criminal law
Q:
What part of criminal law consists of principles that apply to more than one crime?
a. general part of criminal law
b. generic part of criminal law
c. specific part of criminal law
d. special part of criminal law
Q:
Criminal law is only one kind of
a. social norm.
b. social control.
c. social event.
d. informal control.
Q:
According to the text, which of the following is not a property crime?
a. fraud
b. arson
c. burglary
d. vagrancy
Q:
Since the mid-1980s, the two rationales that have dominated penal policy are
a. retribution and incapacitation.
b. deterrence and rehabilitation.
c. reformation and deterrence.
d. vengeance and rehabilitation.
Q:
The assumption underlying rehabilitation theory is that
a. criminal behavior is primarily a medical problem that can be cured with the correct drugs.
b. rehabilitation requires long-term incarceration and intense treatment.
c. forces beyond offenders' control cause them to commit crimes and experts
using the correct therapy can reform criminals.
d. sometimes the cure for criminality involves large doses of pain.
Q:
Who first formulated the theory that rational human beings won"t commit crimes if they know that the pain of punishment outweighs the pleasure they hope to get from committing the crime?
a. The authors of the Old Testament
b. George Bernard Shaw
c. Jeremy Bentham
d. Isaac Ehrlich
Q:
Retributionists assume that
a. people are not culpable for their crimes because they freely chose to commit them.
b. human behavior is shaped by forces not always within our control.
c. preventing crime is the most important goal of the criminal law.
d. justice is best served by sending convicted offenders to prison.
Q:
The theory of punishment that includes the idea that it is right to hate criminals and they deserve to be punished proportionate to the harm they have done is the theory of
a. incapacitation.
b. special deterrence.
c. retribution.
d. general deterrence.
Q:
Which of the following theories or justifications for punishment is retrospective (looks back at the crime)?
a. retribution
b. rehabilitation
c. general deterrence
d. incapacitation
Q:
Which of the following is not one of the criteria required for criminal punishment?
a. The penalty inflicts pain or unpleasant consequences.
b. The penalty inflicts pain that is perceived by the public to be appropriate.
c. The penalty is administered intentionally.
d. The penalty inflicts enough pain so the offender experiences the full extent of society's disapproval.
Q:
To obtain a conviction, the prosecution must prove every element of the offense
a. by a preponderance of the evidence.
b. beyond a reasonable doubt.
c. by showing probable cause.
d. beyond a shadow of a doubt.
Q:
The general part of criminal law consists of
a. the definitions of common terms.
b. crimes that are common in every jurisdiction.
c. principles that apply to more than one crime.
d. definitions of specific crimes.
Q:
Who is credited with first formulating classical deterrence theory?
a. Bentham
b. Robinson
c. Miranda
d. Hart
Q:
The law that says that human beings seek pleasure and avoid pain is the law of:
a. rationalism.
b. hedonism.
c. minimalization.
d. rationalization.
Q:
An offense which is punishable by one year or more in a state prison is called a
a. common-law crime.
b. code offense.
c. misdemeanor.
d. felony.
Q:
Defendants who have committed a must be in court for their trials.
a. misdemeanor
b. gross misdemeanor
c. violation
d. felony
Q:
Who has the burden of proof regarding criminal conduct?
a. the judge
b. the jury
c. the defense
d. the prosecution
Q:
Private wrongs for which you can sue the party who wronged you and recover money are known as
a. torts.
b. misdemeanors.
c. regulatory violations.
d. mala prohibitum offenses.
Q:
Which of the following cases makes clear the need for punishment to make condemnation meaningful?
a. Commonwealth v. Rhodes 1996
b. Chaney v. State (1970)
c. Keeler v. Superior Court (1970)
d. U.S. v. Hudson and Goodwin (1812)
Q:
Describe the difference between a standard of review for clear error and a de novo standard of review.
Q:
Explain the differences between an appeal, a habeas corpus filing, and a civil action under 1983.
Q:
Name and describe the three common post-trial motions that are often made by the defense following a conviction.
Q:
Name three things that a prosecutor or defense attorney may strike a juror for.
Q:
Identify and describe three different rules of evidence.
Q:
Explain the differences between a subpoena and a summons.
Q:
Write a brief paragraph describing what takes place during voir dire.
Q:
Explain the difference between determinate and indeterminate sentencing.
Q:
Describe the sequence of events that take place at trial. Begin with the opening statement and end at the point that the jury reads the verdict.
Q:
Explain how the right to a speedy trial depends on whether a formal accusation has been made.
Q:
There are two major forms of relief for a defendant after being convicted of a crime: __________ and __________.
Q:
A __________ is issued to a person accused of a crime to compel attendance at a criminal proceeding.
Q:
In appellate review of the decisions of courts of original jurisdiction, the __________ standard of review grants no deference to the lower court.
Q:
The prosecutor's failure to disclose evidence which would show the defendant to be not guilty is a violation of the __________.
Q:
Certain types of delay are not counted toward the time periods specified in the Speedy Trial Act. These delays that are not counted are called __________.
Q:
The final, authoritative determination or decision of a court upon a matter within its jurisdiction is called __________.
Q:
The strictness (or level of deference) with which an appellate court will review the actions of a lower court is called __________.
Q:
The term __________ refers to a body of persons, selected and sworn according to law, to inquire into certain matters of fact and to render a verdict or true answer based on evidence presented before it.
Q:
The judge provides guidance to the jury after the closing arguments have been made. The judge may summarize the evidence for the jury members, help them recall details, and attempt to reduce complicated evidence into its simplest elements. This information is referred to as __________.
Q:
__________ require that prosecution commence within a specified period of time from the date of the alleged commission of the offense.
Q:
Prisoners in state custody who allege that certain errors of a constitutional magnitude were not corrected on appeal may file a petition for a writ of habeas corpus in federal district court.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Appellate determinations of either plain error or prejudicial error normally result in a conviction being overturned.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The approach to sentencing that permits the judge to tailor the sentence to each offender, with the goal of changing the offender's behavior, is called determinate sentencing.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In some situations, the defense counsel could elect to wait until the prosecutor has presented the government's evidence before giving an opening statement, thereby concealing the defense strategy until the government has disclosed its case.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The prosecution is not permitted to introduce additional evidence after the defense has closed its case-in-chief.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Petit juries are normally comprised of twelve people, although petit juries as small as six people may be constitutionally permissible.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Peremptory challenges are limited in number, but challenges for cause are not.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Out-of-court statements are testimonialand, therefore, are subject to the Confrontation Clause.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Evidence is relevant if it shows the existence of any fact that is of consequence to the determination of the action by making that fact more probable or less probable than it would be without the evidence.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The best evidence rule means that to prove the content of a writing, recording, or photograph, the original is generally required since copies are too easily altered.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is not a true statement about the venire?
a. Federal law and the law of most states require that no citizen be excluded from service as a juror on account certain factors like race and sex.
b. The venire must be a perfect mirror of the community or accurately [reflect] the proportionate strength of every identifiable group.
c. The venire is supposed to be representative of society as a whole.
d. The prospective jurors who are summoned comprise the venire.
Q:
Which of the following is not a criterion to be viewed competent to serve as a witness in a criminal trial?
a. capable of understanding the duty to tell the truth
b. personal knowledge of the matter about which he or she is testifying
c. capable of understanding and speaking the English language
d. capable of expressing himself or herself so as to be understood by the jury
Q:
Who is typically responsible for preparing the presentence investigation report?
a. police officers
b. court officers
c. the defense attorney
d. probation officers
Q:
The prosecutor's reexamination of the prosecution's witness in order to rehabilitate him or her in the eyes of the jury is known as _____.
a. recross-examination
b. cross-examination
c. redirect examination
d. direct examination
Q:
Select the true statement about evidence used in criminal trials.
a. Hearsay is firsthand evidence or evidence that has some sort of tangible support.
b. Most witnesses are permitted to give their opinions above and beyond those that are rationally based on their own common perceptions.
c. Even relevant evidence may be inadmissible if its use could prejudice, confuse, or mislead the jury.
d. Evidence may be relevant and admissible even if it does not tend to prove or disprove any material fact in dispute.
Q:
In criminal trials, a unanimous verdict is only required if a petit jury is comprised of how many persons?
a. five people or fewer
b. six people or fewer
c. nine people or fewer
d. twelve people or fewer
Q:
The appellate court may affirm the conviction of a defendant, even if there was trial error. The conviction will be upheld if the court finds that there was error which had little likelihood of changing the result of the trial. What is this rule commonly known as?
a. plain error rule
b. contemporaneous objection rule
c. harmless error rule
d. final judgment rule
Q:
Generally, to obtain an appellate court review of an issue, the appealing party (appellant) must preserve its claim by making a specific timely objection at or before trial. What is this rule commonly known as?
a. plain error rule
b. contemporaneous objection rule
c. harmless error rule
d. final judgment rule
Q:
What was the primary reason the U.S. Congress passed the Sentencing Reform Act of 1984?
a. to prevent states from implementing indeterminate sentencing
b. to address concerns over disparate sentencing
c. to enact the federal three-strikes law
d. to implement mandatory sentencing for the crime of treason
Q:
An inmate is housed in a state prison for the crime of murder. He has exhausted all of his appeals and state remedies. The primary assertion that the inmate wants to advance to a court is his claim of innocence, but he has no violation of the U.S. Constitution to claim. Which statement about the inmate's likelihood of success in filing a habeas corpus claim is most accurate?
a. The inmate can succeed in a habeas corpus claim if a state law has been violated.
b. The inmate cannot succeed in a habeas corpus claim unless a state law has been violated.
c. The inmate cannot succeed in filing a habeas corpus claim.
d. The inmate cannot succeed in a habeas corpus claim because no search and seizure law has been violated.
Q:
If a prospective juror, from watching television news, admits during examination that he has already formed an opinion that the defendant is not guilty, how should that juror be treated?
a. considered fit for service
b. peremptorily challenged
c. challenged for cause
d. polled
Q:
What is the process of questioning jurors to determine if they are prejudiced regarding a particular case called?
a. voir dire
b. venire
c. challenge for cause
d. peremptory challenge
Q:
According to Baldwin v. New York, 399 U.S. 66, 69 (1970), in which of the following situations does a defendant has a right to trial by jury under the Sixth Amendment?
a. in all criminal prosecutions
b. in prosecutions for offenses for which an imprisonment penalty is a possibility
c. in all prosecutions for which the possible penalty is 6 months or more imprisonment
d. in all prosecutions including juvenile court proceedings
Q:
An inmate is housed in a state prison for committing a state offense. The inmate has noticed that the conditions of his confinement are quickly deteriorating. The state is placing more than two inmates in a cell, the state is cutting back on rehabilitative and wellness programs, and there have been a number of recent occasions when he was verbally and physically abused by prison staff. If the inmate desires a remedy to these conditions, he might (s)he file?
a. a civil action under 42 U.S.C. 1983.
b. a habeas corpus action.
c. an appeal.
d. a motion to have his sentence reviewed.
Q:
During a criminal trial, a mistake is made that potentially prejudices the defendant. The defendant's attorney failed to make a timely objection. What does this mean?
a. The defendant will not, under any circumstances, be able to raise the point on appeal.
b. The defendant will be able to raise the point on appeal because an error was made.
c. The defendant will only be able to raise the issue on appeal if permission is granted by the prosecutor and the appellate judge.
d. The defendant will only be able to raise the point on appeal if the mistake made is a "plain" or "prejudicial" error.
Q:
Select the true statement regarding federal sentencing guidelines.
a. They are mandatory in all federal cases.
b. They are advisory in all federal cases.
c. They are mandatory in federal felony cases, but advisory in federal misdemeanor cases.
d. They are mandatory in cases where a judge resolved a question of fact.
Q:
Privileged communications protect confidential discussions in certain relationships in which we want to foster open, honest communications. The law usually recognizes all the following privileged relationships except which of the following?
a. attorney and client
b. clergy-member and penitent
c. siblings (brothers/sisters)
d. lawfully-married spouses
Q:
A motion for _____ basically asks the judge to dismiss the case because no reasonable jury could find the defendant guilty beyond a reasonable doubt in light of the insufficient evidence presented by the prosecution.
a. a new trial
b. judgment of acquittal
c. a judgment notwithstanding the verdict
d. revision or correction of sentence
Q:
_____ evidence is evidence tending to prove the same point as evidence already offered, and is generally disallowed because it does little more than contribute to inefficiency.
a. Repetitious
b. Cumulative
c. Skipping
d. Suppressed
Q:
The Supreme Court has ruled that hearsay evidence poses no confrontation clause problem so long as two conditions are met. What are these conditions?
a. the out-of-court declarant is "unavailable" to testify at trial and there are multiple witnesses prepared to testify that the statement was made
b. the out-of-court declarant is "unavailable" to testify at trial and the statement can be empirically tested for reliability
c. the out-of-court declarant is deceased and the statement has "some indicia of reliability"
d. the out-of-court declarant is "unavailable" to testify at trial and the statement has "some indicia of reliability."
Q:
In Barker v. Wingo (1972) the U.S. Supreme Court identified four factors that courts should assess in determining whether a particular defendant has been deprived of the right to a speedy trial. Which of the following most accurately states the factors?
a. length of delay, reason for the delay, whether the delay was inadvertent, and prejudice to the defendant
b. length of delay, whether the delay was inadvertent, defendant assertion of the right, and prejudice to the defendant
c. whether the delay was inadvertent, reason for the delay, defendant assertion of the right, and prejudice to the defendant
d. length of delay, reason for the delay, defendant assertion of the right, and prejudice to the defendant
Q:
State prisoners are permitted to file for federal habeas corpus relief _____.
a. at any time after conviction is entered as a final judgment
b. only after exhausting all available state remedies
c. at any time after the start of the trial
d. only in situations that involve the Fourth Amendment
Q:
When an appellate court reviews questions of fact resolved by a lower court, when can the appellate court disturb the decision of the lower court?
a. only if the lower court applied the correct law and still made a mistake
b. only after providing deference to the lower court and finding plain error
c. only after conducting a de novo review and finding clear error
d. only after providing deference to the lower court and finding clear error
Q:
Select the false statement about the appeal process.
a. Filing an appeal involves the filing of a notice of appeal, the designation of the parts of the trial record to be considered on appeal, the filing of a statement of points on appeal, the filing of briefs, and the arguing of the briefs before an appellate court.
b. An appeal by the prosecution of adverse rulings is made before the jury hears the case or in cases in which the defendant has appealed and won.
c. If a defendant does not have the funds to appeal a conviction, the state will not provide these resources; thus, the person cannot appeal.
d. A defendant has a right to appeal after being convicted of a crime and after the trial judge has decided all post-trial motions and entered final judgment in the case.
Q:
Some states use sentencing guidelines to determine a criminal sentence. These guidelines are generally legislatively created presumptions in the form of a spreadsheet based on offense seriousness and prior record. What term is applied when a judge does not sentence in accordance with the presumed sentence?
a. sentencing anomaly
b. determinate sentence
c. indeterminate sentence
d. sentencing departure
Q:
The Daubert case suggested several factors (that are neither exhaustive nor applicable to every case) that might be used in evaluating whether a particular scientific theory, study, or test is both valid and reliable. Which is not one of the factors identified by the case?
a. It is generally accepted in the relevant scientific community.
b. It has a known or potential rate of error that is acceptably low.
c. It involves a person employed by a college or university.
d. It is empirically testable and capable of replication.
Q:
A prosecutor locates a material witness to support her case. During the trial when the prosecutor questions this witness the questioning is _____.
a. cross-examination
b. rebuttal examination
c. direct examination
d. re-cross examination
Q:
The Compulsory Process Clause guarantees the defendant's right to compel the attendance of favorable witnesses at trial. To compel a person to appear by using a summons, the person to be summoned must be within the _____.
a. United States, a U.S. territory, or in a nation with an existing treaty with the United States
b. United States or a territory of the United States
c. United States
d. geographical area subject to a court's subpoena power
Q:
The primary mechanism through which confrontation is achieved to satisfy the Sixth Amendment requirement is _____.
a. direct examination
b. rebuttal
c. cross-examination
d. negotiations with the prosecutor