Q&A Hero

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Violence Against Women Acta. The engaging of a child in sexual activities for which the child cannot give informed consent.2. Child molestationb. Sexual intercourse by a married person with someone not his or her spouse.3. Elder Abuse Syndromec. Loitering with the intent of committing an illegal act.4. Fighting wordsd. The condition elderly abuse victims sometimes exhibit characterized by "learned helplessness."5. Public indecencye. The criminal act of marrying when one already has a spouse.6. Vagrancyf. The primary attempt by the federal government to address domestic violence.7. Fornicationg. Words that inflict injury, tend to incite an immediate breach of the peace, or by their nature will cause a violent reaction by a person who hears them.8. Adulteryh. Voluntary sexual intercourse between two unmarried persons.9. Bigamyi. The termination of pregnancy by something other than birth.10. Abortionj. Lewd or lascivious conduct that is open to public view.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Propertya. Ownership form where the joint tenant receives the property should the other die.2. Real Propertyb. The state's power to take private property for a public purpose without the owner's consent.3. Personal Propertyc. Joint ownership form in which each owns an undivided interest in the whole property.4. Eminent Domaind. All property other than real property.5. Fee Simplee. Joint ownership form where spouses own an undivided interest in the whole and neither can sell interest in the property without the other's permission.6. Leasehold rightsf. Land and everything permanently attached to it.7. Lieng. A creditor's claim against a particular property as collateral for a debt.8. Tenancy by the entiretyh. A bundle of rights including the right to possess, use and enjoy, and dispose of something.9. Tenants in commoni. The rights a real property tenant possesses through agreement with the property owner.10. Joint Tenants with the right of survivorship.j. The legal term for ownership of the entire bundle of rights that go with a property.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Assaulta. An act of force or threat of force intended to inflict harm upon a person.2. Simple Assaultb. The illegal carrying away of a person by force or coercion, generally with the intent to do harm to the victim.3. Aggravated Assaultc. Using the threat of force to intimidate or threaten a person in the exercise of that person's rights because of that person's race, color, religions, ancestry, national origin, disability, gender, or sexual orientation.4. Arsond. The willful or malicious burning or attempt to burn a building.5. Hate Crimese. A physical attack where the victim suffers no obvious injuries and the attacker does not have a weapon.6. Hate Speechf. Offenses motivated by hatred against a victim based on his or her race, religion, sexual orientation, handicap, ethnicity, or national origin.7. Abductiong. An attack made with the intent of inflicting severe bodily injury.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Armed robberya. A theft made by force or threat of force where no weapon was used.2. Simple Robberyb. A theft committed by force or threat of force by a person or persons carrying a weapon.3. Robberyc. A theft made by force of threat of force.Choices B and C appear to be the same, what is difference between "committed by" and "made by"?

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Forcible fondlinga. Oral or anal intercourse with another person against that person's will.2. Forcible Sodomyb. A defense where the perpetrator believed the victim was older than she was.3. Sexual Assault with an objectc. The unlawful use of an instrument to penetrate the genital or anal opening of a person against the person's will.4. Incestd. Sexual intercourse with someone unable to consent to the act.5. Statutory Rapee. The involuntary touching of another person's body parts for the purpose of sexual gratification.6. Mistake of age defensef. Sexual activity between close relatives.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Marital rapea. The carnal knowledge of a person against that person's will.2. Indecent assaultb. Voluntary agreement by a competent person to another person's proposition.3. Consentc. An attack on a person in which there is groping or other offensive touching.4. Forcible Raped. The rape of one's wife.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Felony murdera. The crime of causing a death by negligent or reckless behavior.2. Voluntary manslaughterb. A death caused by a driver's negligence.3. Involuntary manslaughterc. A homicide committed with the intent to kill, but without deliberation, premeditation, or malice.4. Homicide by vehicled. The charge when the defendant is alleged to have committed a crime resulting in a person's death.5. Criminal negligence manslaughtere. A defendant's plan to injure another person.6. Unlawful act manslaughterf. A death committed by accident or chance during the commission of a felony.7. Intent to do serious bodily harmg. The unintentional killing of a human being by a person engaging in illegal, but not felonious, or reckless behavior.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Corpus dilectia. Use of a deadly weapon is proof of intent to kill.2. Circumstantial evidenceb. A defendant's plan to injure another.3. Direct evidencec. The plan, course or means a person conceives to take another's life.4. Intent to killd. The deliberate commission of a dangerous or deadly act.5. Malice aforethoughte. The fact that a crime has been committed.6. Deadly weapon doctrinef. Real, tangible, or clear evidence of a fact or occurrence.7. Intent to do serious bodily harmg. Evidence that proves a fact by inference.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Subjective intenta. The concept that some actions are so likely to cause a specific result, that the law treats that result as intended.2. Objective intentb. Intent where the person intended the action only and not the result.3. Specific intentc. What a reasonable person should have known or thought at the time of the event.4. General intentd. The offender's conscious intentions at the time of the crime.5. Transferred intente. The type of intent where the person commits an act designed to cause a specific criminal result.6. Constructive intentf. The type of intent where a person intends to harm one person and harms another in the process.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Strict liabilitya. The liability that those in loco parentis have for their charges.2. Vicarious liabilityb. Liability that one person has for another.3. Corporate liabilityc. Liability for harm even if the person is not at fault or negligent.4. Parental liabilityd. Liability that employees incur for their employers.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Attorneysa. Legal professionals who monitor and counsel offenders during the offender's time on parole or probation.2. Judgesb. Lawyers who typically have been elected to try criminal cases on behalf of the people.3. Minor Judiciaryc. Legal professionals who assist attorneys and others involved in the legal system.4. District or Prosecuting Attorneyd. Magistrates, justices of the peace, municipal judges or similar positions.5. Public Defenderse. Law enforcement officers who work for the FBI , DEA, U.S. Marshalls' Service, the ATF, or DHS.6. State and local law enforcement officersf. The presiding officers at judicial proceedings.7. Federal law enforcementg. Sheriff's deputies, state and local police.8. Paralegals or legal assistantsh. Licensed professionals who can appear in court to represent individuals.9. Parole and probation officersi. Attorneys provided by the state to defend individuals who cannot afford to hire a private attorney.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. U. S. Constitutiona. Orders given by the president of governors that have the weight of law within the operation of the federal or state executive branch.2. English Bill of Rightsb. Laws passed by the U.S. Congress or state legislatures.3. U.S. Bill of Rightsc. Code that attempts to unify state penal codes.4. Treatiesd. Precursor to the U.S. Bill of Rights, it guarantees due process and bars cruel and unusual punishments5. Napoleonic Codee. Rules issued by a municipal, county, state or federal agency authorized by a statute.6. Codified Lawsf. The first ten amendments to the U.S. Constitution.7. Regulationsg. The French System of Laws developed by Napoleon I.8. Model Penal Code and Commentariesh. Rulings courts make interpreting codified laws and regulations.9. Executive Ordersi. Agreements with foreign governments ratified by the U.S. Senate.10. Judicial Decisionsj. The document upon which the U.S. government is based.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Arrest Warranta. An accused's first official notification of the charges against him or her occurring shortly after arrest.2. Miranda Warningb. The stage of a criminal case at which the defendant is first formally charged with a specific crime.3. Preliminary Arraignmentc. Money or other guarantee posted to assure a defendant who is released from custody pending trial or appeal will appear in court.4. Baild. A formal hearing that is the first occasion the government must produce evidence against the defendant.5. Preliminary Hearinge. The situation that occurs when the court does not require the defendant to post bail at the preliminary hearing.6. Released on one's own recognizancef. A document approved by a magistrate or justice attesting that there is probable cause to believe that someone has committed a specific crime, and authorizing that person's arrest.7. Arraignmentg. The warning given to suspects that they have the right to remain silent and the right to counsel.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. The Supremacy Clausea. Article I, Section 8, Clause 3 of the U.S. Constitution that gives the federal government the right to regulate interstate commerce.2. The Commerce Clauseb. The power of a government to enforce the laws and regulate the health, safety, morals and welfare of the population.3. Police powerc. Article VI, Section 2 of the U.S. Constitution that states that the Constitution, federal law and treaties are the supreme law of the land.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Legislativea. The branch of government charged with enforcing the law.2. Executiveb. The branch of government charged with interpreting the law.3. Judicialc. The branch of government charged with making the law.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Summary Offensesa. Crimes punishable by relatively short prison sentences or fines.2. Misdemeanorsb. The most serious classification of crimes punishable by long prison sentences or death.3. Feloniesc. Minor offenses such as parking tickets, or minor traffic violations.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Burden of Proofa. The burden of proof the prosecution must meet in a criminal trial.2. Beyond a reasonable doubtb. The standard required to prove an allegation with facts.3. Preponderance of the evidencec. In a civil case, the person against whom the suit is filed. In a criminal case, the person accused of a crime.4. Plaintiffd. Evidence that is more convincing than the opposing evidence.5. Defendante. The party who files a lawsuit

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Consensus Theorya. The school of jurisprudence thought that believes laws are based on logic.2. Elite or ruling class Theoryb. The theory that laws develop out of a society's consensus about what is right and wrong.3. Natural Law Schoolc. The school of jurisprudential thought that believes the law is an accumulation of societal traditions.4. Historical Schoold. The theory that laws only exist as a means of class oppression.5. Analytical Schoole. The school of jurisprudential thought that teaches that laws are based on morality and ethics, and that people have natural rights.

Q: MATCHINGCOLUMN 1COLUMN 21. Lawa. The Study of Law2. Jurisprudenceb. To stand by that which was decided, rule by which courts decide new cases based on how they decided similar cases before.3. Common Lawc. The body of rules of conduct created by government and enforced by the authority of the government.4. Stare Decisisd. The system of jurisprudence originated in England and later applied in the United States, that is based on judicial precedent rather than legislative enactments.5. Precedente. Prior decision that a court must follow when deciding a new, similar case.

Q: Vieth v. Jubelirer concerned _____.a. districting in New Jerseyb. gerrymanderingc. racial discriminationd. policies that favored Pennsylvania Democrats

Q: _________ was a case arising from World War II that was the focus of both the majority and dissenting opinions in Boumediene v. Bush. a. Ex parte Quirin b. Ex parte Milligan c. Johnson v. Eisentrager d. None of the above

Q: Sneak-and-peak search warrants are authorized by _____. a. the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act b. the Crime Control Act c. the Patriot Act d. the Authorization for Use of Military Force

Q: Boumediene v. Bush involved a challenge to _____. a. the Patriot Act b. the Crime Control Act of 1968 c. the Geneva Convention d. the Military Commission Act

Q: In Korematsu v. United States, Justice Murphy declared _____. a. that the government's policy was lawful b. that the government's policy was unfortunate but necessary c. that the government's policy was racist d. that the Court should never have agreed to hear the case

Q: In Korematsu v. United States, Justice Jackson argues in his opinion that _____. a. the government's policy is unconstitutional b. the government's policy is constitutional c. the Court should never have agreed to hear the case d. war is a series of hardships

Q: Korematsu v. United States is often cited as the initial articulation by the Court of _____. a. fundamental fairness b. strict scrutiny c. due process of law d. None of the above

Q: The opinion of the Court in Ex parte Milligan was written by _____. a. Chief Justice Chase b. Chief Justice Waite c. Justice Grier d. Justice Davis

Q: Ex parte Milligan arose as a result of _____. a. World War II b. the Vietnam War c. the invasion of Afghanistan by the United States d. the Civil War

Q: "Inter arma silent leges" means _____. a. "in time of war the laws must be observed" b. "during wartime, victory must be secured at all costs" c. "in time of war the laws are silent" d. "in time of war the laws are rarely silent"

Q: Justice _______ wrote the opinion of the Court in United States v. United States District Court. a. Rehnquist b. Blackmun c. Douglas d. Powell

Q: In United States v. United States District Court, the Supreme Court ruled _____. a. 9"0 b. 8"1 c. 6"3 d. 5"4

Q: United States v. United States District Court involved _____. a. electronic surveillance b. presidential power c. Title III of the Crime Control Act of 1968 d. All of the above

Q: In Plessy v. Ferguson, Justice Harlan insisted that the Constitution _____. a. tolerated racial distinctions in the law b. required racial segregation c. barred discrimination against women d. was color blind

Q: In _____, the Supreme Court declared gender discrimination to be a _____ category for applying the equal protection clause. a. Reed v. Reed (1971); suspect b. Frontiero v. Richardson (1973); quasi-suspect c. Craig v. Boren (1976); quasi-suspect d. Mississippi University for Women v. Hogan (1982); suspect

Q: In Regents of the University of California v. Bakke (1978), the Supreme Court held that _____. a. racial quotas were impermissible, but race could be a factor in admissions policies b. affirmative action programs discriminated against undeserving individuals c. racial quotas were an acceptable method of overcoming past discrimination d. for more than a century and a half, the Constitution had not been color blind

Q: The difference between de facto segregation and de jure segregation is that _____. a. de facto segregation is instituted by law, while de jure segregation occurs in practice b. de jure segregation is instituted by law, while de facto segregation occurs in practice c. the Constitution specifically protects de facto segregation but not de jure segregation d. the Constitution specifically protects de jure segregation but not de facto segregation

Q: In _____, the Supreme Court struck down segregated schools in the District of Columbia, noting that the Fifth Amendment's due process clause incorporated the Fourteenth Amendment's equal protection guarantee and was thus applicable to the federal government. a. Milliken v. Bradley (1974) b. Alexander v. Holmes County (1969) c. Bolling v. Sharpe (1954) d. Cooper v. Aaron (1957)

Q: Before Brown v. Board of Education was reargued in 1953, Chief Justice _____ died and was replaced by Earl Warren. a. William Howard Taft b. Charles Evans Hughes c. Harlan F. Stone d. Fred M. Vinson

Q: In Plessy v. Ferguson (1896), the Supreme Court upheld a Louisiana law requiring racial segregation _____. a. in public schools b. on railroad cars c. in courtrooms d. in the state legislature

Q: In the Civil Rights Cases (1883), the Supreme Court reasoned that _____. a. the Fourteenth Amendment prohibited state discrimination only b. the Fourteenth Amendment prohibited state and private discrimination c. the Civil Rights Act of 1875 was a legitimate exercise of congressional authority d. section 5 of the Fourteenth Amendment authorized Congress to eradicate all forms of racism

Q: The "suspect classification" doctrine originated in _____. a. English common law b. Korematsu v. United States (1944) c. Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) d. the Civil Rights Cases (1883)

Q: Justice William O. Douglas was the first to make the case for heightened judicial scrutiny of legislation affecting fundamental rights in _____, where the Supreme Court struck down a state law providing for the compulsory sterilization of criminals. a. Skinner v. Oklahoma (1942) b. Buck v. Bell (1927) c. Jacobsen v. Massachusetts (1905) d. Shelley v. Kraemer (1948)

Q: What term from astronomy did Justice Douglas place at the center of his opinion in Griswold v. Connecticut? a. Eclipse b. Planetary c. Penumbra d. Orbit

Q: Gonzales v. Carhart involved a statute similar to one the Court had struck down in 2000 in _____. a. Roe v. Wade b. Washington v. Glucksberg c. Stenberg v. Carhart d. Lawrence v. Texas

Q: Chief Justice/Justice______ wrote the Court's opinion in Gonzales v. Carhart. a. Roberts b. Alito c. Rehnquist d. Kennedy

Q: Gonzales v. Carhart involved _____. a. flag protection b. assisted suicide c. late-term abortions d. None of the above

Q: Washington v. Glucksberg involved _____. a. consensual sodomy b. assisted suicide c. an abortion law d. symbolic speech

Q: Lawrence v. Texas involved _____. a. a woman who wanted an abortion b. a woman arrested for consensual sex with another woman c. a man and a woman arrested for indecent exposure d. a man arrested for having consensual sex with another man.

Q: In Cruzan v. Missouri Health Department (1989), the Supreme Court held that a state must demand the clear and convincing evidence standard as a means of guarding against potential abuses of the "substituted judgment" doctrine. a. TRUE b. FALSE

Q: In Bowers v. Hardwick (1986), the Supreme Court _____. a. struck down a state law that making it a crime to engage in homosexual sodomy b. upheld a state law as applied to homosexual sodomy c. upheld a state law as applied to heterosexual sodomy d. struck down a state law prohibiting single-sex marriages

Q: In Planned Parenthood v. Casey (1992), the Supreme Court struck down a state requirement that a married woman seeking an abortion must _____. a. wait 24 hours before undergoing the procedure b. notify her husband of her intentions c. undergo a psychiatric evaluation d. give her "informed consent"

Q: Chief Justice/Justice _____ articulated the "trimester approach" for legal abortions. a. Warren Burger b. Earl Warren c. Harry Blackmun d. William Brennan

Q: In _____, the Supreme Court specifically held that the right of privacy "is broad enough to encompass a woman's decision whether . . . to terminate her pregnancy." a. Griswold v. Connecticut (1965) b. Maher v. Roe (1977) c. Planned Parenthood v. Casey (1992) d. Roe v. Wade (1973)

Q: In Griswold v. Connecticut (1965), Chief Justice/Justice _____ wrote, "The Constitution makers knew the need for change and provided for it. Amendments . . . can be submitted to the people . . . for ratification. That method of change was good enough for our Fathers, and being somewhat old-fashioned I must add that it is good enough for me." a. William O. Douglas b. Earl Warren c. Felix Frankfurter d. Hugo Black

Q: Section 5 of the Fourteenth Amendment grants Congress the authority to legislate in the field of _____. a. eminent domain b. presidential power c. civil rights d. international relations

Q: McCreary County v. ACLU involved _____. a. prayer in public schools b. a Christmas tree in a county courthouse c. a display containing the Ten Commandments d. None of the above

Q: Zelman v. Simmons-Harris concerned _____. a. school vouchers b. Bible reading in public schools c. prayer at high school football games d. a nativity scene on public property

Q: The holding in Santa Fe v. Doe is consistent with the holding in Abington v. Schempp. a. TRUE b. FALSE

Q: The test from Lemon v. Kurtzman was strengthened in Agostini v. Felton. a. TRUE b. FALSE

Q: In Employment Division v. Smith (1990), the Supreme Court _____ a claim by _____ that their ritualistic use of _____ constituted free exercise of religion. a. accepted; Satanists; animal sacrifice b. rejected; Native Americans; peyote c. accepted; Native Americans; peyote d. rejected; Satanists; animal sacrifice

Q: In Wallace v. Jaffree (1985), the Supreme Court _____ an Alabama law that required students in public schools to _____. a. reviewed; recite an official prayer composed by the state board of education b. upheld; study "creation science" as well as the theory of evolution c. struck down; observe a moment of silence at the start of each school day d. struck down; remain silent during graduation prayers

Q: Which of the following is not a prong of the Lemon test? a. The challenged law or practice must have a secular purpose. b. The challenged law or practice may not have the primary effect of advancing or inhibiting religion. c. The challenged law or practice must guarantee the absolute separation of government from religion. d. The challenged law or practice may not lead to an excessive entanglement between church and state.

Q: The Supreme Court struck down public school"sponsored Bible readings and prayers in _____. a. Abington v. Schempp (1963) b. Lemon v. Kurtzman (1971) c. Everson v. Board of Education (1947) d. Everson v. Board of Education (1947)

Q: Which justice is most clearly identified with the view that government may accommodate religious practices? a. Hugo Black b. Robert Jackson c. William Brennan d. Willam Rehnquist

Q: _____ was the first case in which the Supreme Court applied the establishment clause to the states via the Fourteenth Amendment. a. Cantwell v. Connecticut (1940) b. Everson v. Board of Education (1947) c. Abington v. Schempp (1963) d. Sherbert v. Verner (1963)

Q: In West Virginia Board of Education v. Barnette (1943), the Supreme Court _____. a. struck down a state law that compelled public school students to salute the American flag b. struck down a state law that compelled public school students to recite the Lord's Prayer c. exempted children of Amish families from compulsory school attendance regulations d. upheld a state law that compelled public school students to recite the Pledge of Allegiance because it "imbued citizenship"

Q: In New York Times v. United States (1971), the Supreme Court _____ a lower-court injunction prohibiting newspapers from publishing _____. a. affirmed; the Pentagon Papers b. struck down; the Pentagon Papers c. struck down; excerpts from the Watergate recordings d. affirmed; excerpts from the Watergate recordings

Q: The defendants in Dennis v. United States had been convicted of violating the _____. a. Solomon Amendment b. Enforcement Act of 1870 c. Smith Act of 1940 d. None of the above

Q: The author of the plurality opinion in Dennis v. United States was _____. a. Chief Justice Warren b. Chief Justice Hughes c. Chief Justice Stone d. Chief Justice Vinson

Q: Benjamin Gitlow was a member of _____. a. the Communist Party b. the Democratic Party c. the Republican Party d. the Socialist Party

Q: In Whitney v. California, Ms. Whitney was convicted of violating California's law against _____. a. harboring a fugitive b. criminal syndicalism c. voter fraud d. distributing obscene materials

Q: In Texas v. Johnson (1989), many Supreme Court observers were surprised that (Chief) Justice _____ joined the dissenters. a. Rehnquist b. Stevens c. O"Connor d. White

Q: In Texas v. Johnson (1989), many Supreme Court observers were surprised that justices _____ and _____ joined the majority. a. Scalia; Kennedy b. O"Connor; Kennedy c. Souter; Scalia d. O"Connor; Scalia

Q: Which of the following is the best example of symbolic speech? a. The expletive "f--- the draft" prominently displayed on the jacket of a man as he walks down a courthouse corridor b. A black armband worn by a school student during school hours as a visible expression of protest against the Vietnam War c. Peaceful picketing, boycotts, and sit-ins d. The bullet that killed Abraham Lincoln

Q: In New York Times v. U.S. (1971), the Supreme Court rebuffed the Nixon administration's attempt to block publication of ____. a. an editorial critical of the Vietnam War b. an advertisement taken out by critics of the Nixon administration c. a document containing instructions on the creation of an atomic bomb d. the Pentagon Papers

Q: Under New York Times v. Sullivan (1964), a public official is barred from recovering damages for the publication of libelous statements unless he or she can show that the defendant's statements were made with _____. a. criminal negligence b. actual malice c. reckless abandon d. latent hostility

Q: In RAV v. St. Paul (1992), the Supreme Court concluded that St. Paul's ban on cross burning _____. a. violated the free speech clause of the First Amendment b. did not violate the free speech clause of the First Amendment c. was aimed at action rather than speech and thus did not present a First Amendment problem d. was prohibited by the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment

Q: Personally abusive epithets or insults that are intended to and inherently likely to provoke violence are known as _____. a. obscenities b. fighting words c. hate speech d. solicitations

Q: In Miller v. California (1973), the Supreme Court held that to be obscene, a particular work had to be totally without redeeming social value. a. TRUE b. FALSE

Q: In _____, the Supreme Court reversed an obscenity conviction where a man had been prosecuted after police found obscene films in his home. a. Roth v. U.S. (1957) b. Alberts v. California (1957) c. Memoirs of a Woman of Pleasure v. Massachusetts (1966) d. Stanley v. Georgia (1969)