Q&A Hero

Q: The disposal of wastes into wells is a focus of: A. the Clean Water Act. B. the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act. C. RCRA. D. the Safe Drinking Water Act.

Q: Which of the following is true of the Safe Drinking Water Act? A. A public water system is defined to include any supplier of water to the public that has 30 or more service connections or serves 250 people or more at least 180 days a year. B. The standards must be met by "public water systems" and applied at the point the drinking water enters the water distribution system. C. The standards are not applicable to private water suppliers but only to municipalities that provide water to their citizens. D. While states are required to enforce the drinking water standards, the federal government does not have the right to enforce them.

Q: _____ is the organization responsible for certifying that an organization meets the requirements of ISO 14001. A. The National Safety Council B. The National Institute of Standards and Technology C. The American National Standards Institute D. The American Society for Quality

Q: _____ was drafted with the intention of addressing the issue of global warming through collective international action. A. NEPA B. The Clean Water Act C. The Koyoto Protocol D. The Copenhagen Consensus

Q: The _____ of 1886 provided that in order to deposit or discharge "refuse" into a navigable waterway, a discharge permit had to be obtained from the Army Corps of Engineers. A. River and Harbor Act B. Clean Water Act C. Federal Water Pollution Control Act D. National Pollution Discharge Elimination Act

Q: Under the Clean Water Act, the primary responsibility for preventing, reducing, and eliminating water pollution lies with: A. international agencies. B. the federal government. C. the EPA. D. the states.

Q: Which of the following is a true statement about the Clean Water Act? A. It was the 1970 amendment to the Federal Water Pollution Control Act (FWPCA). B. The act provides that a discharge permit has to be obtained from the Army Corps of Engineers in order to deposit or discharge "refuse" into a navigable waterway. C. One of the goals of the Act was to have no discharges of pollutants into the nation's waters by 1985. D. Under the Clean Water Act, the federal government has the primary responsibility for preventing, reducing, and eliminating water pollution.

Q: Anyone who discharges industrial wastewater from a point source into a river must: A. do so in compliance with the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act. B. obtain a permit from the American National Standards Institute (ANSI). C. obtain a National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit. D. follow standards prescribed by the Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act of 1972.

Q: The Clean Water Act prohibits any dredging or filling activity undertaken without a permit in a wetland that is: A. located in the United States, irregardless of navigability. B. part of the navigable waters of the United States. C. under federal protection. D. habituated by marine life.

Q: The 1990 amendments to the Clean Air Act: A. brought in civil penalties for violating the lawa minimum of $2,500 for a first offense up to $50,000 per day and two years in prison for subsequent violations. B. state that any dredging or filling activity in a wetland that is part of the navigable waters of the United States requires a permit before the activity can be commenced. C. require the availability of oxygenated fuels in specified areas of the country that are having difficulty meeting the air quality limits at least part of the year. D. require electricity-generating facilities to build tall smokestacks so that emissions were dispersed over a broader area.

Q: Which of the following caused the long-range transport of some pollutants, contributing to the formation of acid rain, snow, fog, or dry deposition? A. Electric-generating facilities installing scrubbers. B. Electric-generating facilities switching to lower-sulfur coal. C. Electric-generating facilities installing "clean coal" technologies. D. Electric-generating facilities building tall smokestacks.

Q: The Clean Air Act requires that new stationary sources such as factories and power plants: A. install the best available technology for reducing air pollution. B. install the best pollution control technology they can afford. C. install the best pollution control technology available as long as it won't slow down production. D. install state-of-the-art control technology unless the source is located in an area where the air quality is better than that required by law.

Q: Which of the following is true for air pollution controls on transportation provided by the Clean Air Act? A. Under the Clean Air Act, no manufacturer may sell vehicles subject to emission standards without prior certification from the EPA that the vehicles meet the required standards. B. The 1970 Clean Air Act required a reduction by 1976 of 60 percent in the amount of the carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons emitted by automobiles. C. To satisfy the requirements of the 1970 Clean Air Act, manufacturers could rely on already existing technology to meet the pollution control standards. D. The 1970 Clean Air Act does not provide for the regulation and registration of fuel additives such as lead.

Q: Primary responsibility for enforcing air quality standards lies with: A. the federal government. B. the states. C. local governments. D. international agencies.

Q: VOCs are: A. substances which combine with nitrogen oxides to become ozone. B. substances which release chlorines and deplete ozone. C. fumigants used on citrus and grain products. D. also known as catalytic converters.

Q: An environmental impact statement: A. is a statement by a manufacturer of hazardous materials listing the toxicity level of those materials. B. is a statement by state or local governments which notifies the EPA of local environmental concerns. C. is a statement required by federal law for every major federal action which significantly affects the quality of the environment. D. is an action statement providing policies and regulations to manage human activities with a view to prevent and reduce hazardous effects on the environment.

Q: (p. 997; 998) A developer seeking a local zoning change so she can build a major commercial or residential development may find that she is asked to finance a study of the potential environmental impact of her proposed project, as under the: A. Federal Water Pollution Control Act. B. Control of Air Toxics Act. C. Clean Air Act. D. National Environmental Policy Act.

Q: Under the Clean Air Act, _____ were designed to protect vegetation, materials, climate, visibility, and economic values. A. complementary standards for pollution control B. primary standards by federal air quality control C. elementary standards for air quality D. secondary standards by federal air quality control

Q: Under the Clean Air Act, ambient air quality standards designed to protect the public's health are known as: A. primary standards. B. secondary standards. C. standard of the commons. D. elementary standards.

Q: Failure to comply with the RCRA can subject a violator to both criminal and civil penalties.

Q: Under CERCLA, parties who are responsible for the problem of a hazardous waste site are jointly and severally responsible for the costs of cleanup of the site.

Q: When the EPA expends money to clean up a Superfund site, it has the legal authority to recover its costs from those who were responsible for the problem.

Q: Which of the following statements is true of the Environmental Protection Agency? A. It was created in 1970, to consolidate the state government's environmental responsibilities. B. It aims only at pollution problems that can be seen, smelled, or tasted. C. Much of the initial effort to address environmental problems involved command and control regulation. D. Over the decade of the 1970s, Congress passed comprehensive new legislation covering only air and water pollution.

Q: The National Environmental Policy Act: A. does not provide citizens the authority to go to court to force compliance with NEPA. B. commissions a federal agency to assess the environmental impact of a project after the project is undertaken. C. requires that an environmental impact statement be prepared for most of the recommendations or reports on legislation. D. requires an environmental impact statement for every major federal action significantly affecting the quality of the environment.

Q: The Safe Drinking Water Act does not regulate disposal of wastes in wells.

Q: Most of the wastes defined as hazardous under RCRA are subject to a "cradle to the grave" tracking system and must be handled and disposed of in defined ways.

Q: Federal water pollution legislation dates back to the 19th century, when Congress enacted the River and Harbor Act of 1886.

Q: Under the Clean Water Act, the federal government has the primary responsibility for preventing, reducing, and eliminating water pollution.

Q: Dischargers in violation of the Clean Water Act can face up to two years in prison and a fine of $50,000 per day of violation.

Q: (p. 984, 985) Describe the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999 (GLBA).

Q: What is the main idea behind the Holder in Due Course rule?

Q: Discuss the product safety standards issued by the Consumer Product Safety Act (CPSA). Also, list at least three products which, although consumer goods, do not come under the authority of CPSA.

Q: The Clean Air Act does not provide for the regulation of fuel additives such as lead.

Q: Under the Clean Air Act, manufacturers may sell vehicles without prior certification from the EPA if they have met the required standards in all prior checks.

Q: The EPA required large emitters of greenhouse gasses to report their annual emissions and announced that major emitters will have to address greenhouse gasses in the permits they obtain under the Clean Air Act.

Q: ____ laws were passed to provide some relief to customers having complaints against auto dealers. A. Credit B. Equal opportunity C. Fair credit D. Lemon

Q: Arbitration of "lemon laws" under state statute: A. is not required by most statutes. B. is usually binding on the consumer, not the manufacturer. C. is usually binding on the manufacturer, not the consumer. D. is not binding on either the manufacturer or consumer.

Q: Remedies under "lemon laws" include: A. suing for injunctive relief or the seizure of products to enforce various provisions of the law. B. return of the purchase price of the product, even if the defect is minor and not covered by a warranty. C. replacement of the defective product with a new one. D. offering extra credit benefits for the purchase of a new product from the same manufacturer.

Q: How do the new rules of the Credit Card Accountability and Disclosure Act (CARD) help consumers deal with credit card debt?

Q: What are the main goals of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA)? Under what conditions is this act not applicable?

Q: The Consumer Product Safety Act (CPSA): A. provides civil penalties against those who knowingly and willfully violate CPSC rules even after being issued notification by it. B. allows only the U.S. attorney general to sue for injunctive relief or the seizure of products to enforce various provisions of the act. C. permits any private party to sue for an injunction to enforce any CPSC rule or order, if, at the time of the suit, the commission or the attorney general has begun an action based on the alleged violation. D. allows those injured because of a knowing and willful violation of a CPSC rule or order to sue for damages if the amount in controversy exceeds $100,000.

Q: The CPSC and the ____ may sue for injunctive relief or the seizure of products to enforce various provisions of the Consumer Product Safety Act (CPSA). A. U.S President B. U.S Chief Justice C. U.S Attorney General D. U.S Secretary of State

Q: The Holder in Due Course rule: A. alters statutes of limitations or other state-created limitations on the consumer's enforcement of claims and defenses. B. states that all defenses available to the purchaser against the seller can also be available against the holder in due course. C. eliminates rights that the consumer may have as a matter of federal, state, or local law. D. creates a warranty claim or defense where the product is sold "as is."

Q: Which of the following statements is true for Consumer Product Safety Act (CPSA) of 1972? A. This act can regulate consumer products but does not have the power to ban any products. B. The Consumer Product Safety Commission created by it is the main federal agency concerned with product safety. C. Its authority covers products such as motor vehicles and equipment, firearms, aircraft, boats, drugs, cosmetics, and food products. D. It cannot bring suit in federal district court to eliminate the dangers presented by imminently hazardous consumer products.

Q: The Consumer Product Safety Commission: A. may file suit in federal court against manufacturers of imminently hazardous consumer products in an effort to eliminate the danger posed by such products. B. has authority to issue product safety standards, but does not have the authority to file suit in federal court against manufacturers of imminently hazardous consumer products. C. has authority to issue product safety standards, but does not have the authority to order a manufacturer to submit a plan for corrective action with regard to a product that poses a substantial hazard to the public. D. has authority to issue product safety standards, but does not require manufacturers, distributors, and retailers to notify the CPSC if they have reason to know that their products present a substantial product hazard.

Q: The Consumer Product Safety Commission's authority is applicable to ___. A. firearms B. drugs C. cosmetics D. lawn mowers

Q: The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) covers credit information supplied to potential ____. A. dealers B. employers C. debtors D. brokers

Q: Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, a consumer who has been denied credit: A. cannot compel the credit reporting agency to delete any inaccurate or obsolete information from the file. B. is entitled to disclosure of the name and address of the credit reporting agency that made the report. C. can file compel the credit reporting agency to delete disputed information without an investigation. D. is not entitled to a reinvestigation of the disputed information in the report made by the credit reporting agency.

Q: Which of the following acts has provisions for combating identity theft? A. The Fair Credit Billing Act. B. The Fair Credit and Charge Card Disclosure Act. C. The Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act. D. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act.

Q: The Equal Credit Opportunity Act: A. is designed to protect consumers from unfair or inaccurate credit reporting. B. requires online ads for free credit reports to disclose whether the consumer must buy credit monitoring or other products or services to get the report. C. prohibits discrimination in credit transactions on grounds of sex, marital status, race, color, religion, national origin, and age. D. sets forth basic privacy protections that must be provided by financial institutions and requires them to respect the privacy of their customers' nonpublic personal information.

Q: Harry and Rebecca are both 63 years old and have a flourishing business. They decide to purchase a beach house and seek a 15-year mortgage. In this situation: A. the mortgage company may deny them credit based on their age and possibility of loss of income at retirement. B. the mortgage company may deny them credit based on the Equal Credit Opportunity Act because their application, when compared to more youthful applicants, is not "equal". C. the mortgage company cannot deny them credit, based on the Equal Credit Opportunity Act. D. the mortgage company is well-within its rights to deny them credit, based on the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, but must do so within 50 days.

Q: (p. 985, 986) The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act: A. covers all retail stores, banks, or businesses that collect their own debts in their own name. B. prohibits harassment by debt collectors, including late-night phone calls and threats of violence. C. protects applicants from being discriminated on grounds of sex, marital status, race, color, religion, national origin, and age. D. ensures that information concerning a person's credit background supplied to his/her creditors is both up-to-date and accurate.

Q: According to Congress, the Fair Credit and Charge Card Disclosure Act: A. would enable consumers to shop around for the best cards. B. would prevent unauthorized use of credit cards. C. would challenge the authority of the FTC. D. would compel issuers to process customer applications faster.

Q: The Consumer Leasing Act: A. requires the creditor to disclose the aggregate costs of leasing consumer goods. B. does not require the lease agreement to define the consumer's liability. C. applies to leases of consumer goods only if the leases are for more than five years. D. applies to leases of consumer goods if the total contractual obligation exceeds $25,000.

Q: Under the Fair Credit Billing Act: A. a card issuer may report a cardholder's delinquency to a credit reporting agency at any time deemed reasonable by it. B. a card issuer must inform the cardholder of the reporting agency to which the issuer sends its reports. C. the seller cannot offer discounts if the buyer pays cash for a purchase rather than using a credit card. D. the consumer has the right to have a credit report withheld from anyone not having a legitimate business need for the information.

Q: According to the Fair Credit Billing Act (FCBA), if the credit card holder thinks that the card issuer has made an error on the statement: A. he has 90 days from the time the card was issued to report, in writing, the error. B. he has 30 days from the time the statement was mailed to report the error. C. he has 60 days from the time the statement was mailed to report, in writing or orally, the error. D. he has 60 days from the time the statement was mailed to report, in writing, the error.

Q: Henry applied for a loan from First Bank and was denied the loan two weeks later. He discovered that the reason behind the denial was that the bank considered him a poor credit risk because a credit report stated that he was an alcoholic. Henry claimed that this information was not true. Which of the following Acts will allow Henry to approach First Bank for reconsideration of his loan application? A. Equal Credit Opportunity Act B. Fair Debt Collection Practices Act C. Fair Credit Billing Act D. Fair Credit Reporting Act

Q: According to TILA, charges on a stolen credit card that exceed $50: A. would have to be paid by the cardholder. B. would not have to be paid by the cardholder if the loss is reported within 2 days. C. would not have to be paid by the cardholder. D. would have to be recovered from the person who stole the card.

Q: The Wagners entered into a contract with Crummy Construction under which Crummy agreed to do $33,000 worth of remodeling of the Wagner home. Crummy agreed that the contract price could be paid in installments, and that to secure these payments, Crummy would take out a second mortgage on the Wagner home. The day after signing the contract, the Wagners had second thoughts and immediately hand-delivered a written notice to Crummy stating that they wanted to rescind the contract. Can they do so? A. Yes, under the rescission right of the Truth in Lending Act. B. No, because the transaction involved more than $25,000 and was, therefore, not covered by the rescission right in the Truth in Lending Act. C. No, because the rescission right in the Truth in Lending Act does not apply to transactions in which the creditor takes a mortgage to secure the loan. D. Yes, under the rescission right provided by TILA as their house wasn't used as collateral.

Q: A debtor may rescind a contract under the Truth in Lending Act: A. only if the debtor's home is used as collateral. B. only in the instance of a first mortgage on his home. C. by way of oral notification to the creditor. D. within 30 days after the purchase on credit.

Q: ____ is defined as use by a person who lacks express, implied, or apparent authority to use a credit or debit card. A. Authorized use B. Rescissionary use C. Undisclosed use D. Unauthorized use

Q: The FTC: A. has authority to decide whether specific marketing and sales practices are unfair or deceptive. B. does not have power to regulate unfair and deceptive practices in cyberspace. C. can find that a seller is engaged in unfair trade practices only if the seller violated one of the other federal laws the FTC is empowered to enforce. D. holds no powers to order federal courts to award redress.

Q: The Telemarketing and Consumer Fraud and Abuse Prevention Act: A. prohibits calling between 9:00 AM and 5:00 PM. B. requires that all disclosures must be made before the customer pays for the goods or services. C. prohibits customers from demanding disclosure if the solicitation pertains to a prize promotion. D. allows telemarketers and sellers to deny a person the right to be placed on the do-not-call registry.

Q: The Credit Card Accountability and Disclosure Act (CARD) regulates credit card billing cycles by: A. allowing a $30 penalty fee for late payment of credit card debts. B. allowing penalties to exceed the minimum balance due. C. prohibiting double-cycle billing. D. issuing cards to applicants under 21 years without a cosigner.

Q: Which of the following statements is true for gift cards? A. They are subject to TILA regulations. B. Recipients have 2 years to use the cards. C. A fee can be assessed if the card has not been used within 6 months. D. A fee can only be assessed if a customer is first notified of the fees.

Q: Under the Truth in Lending Act, "finance charge": A. includes all costs related to the extension of credit. B. includes all costs related to the extension of credit except for fees for credit reports. C. includes only interest rates but not any other credit charges. D. does not include loan fees and fees for credit reports.

Q: What is the "right of rescission"? A. Correction of outdated or wrong information and its notification to credit information recipients. B. A cancellation right for three business days after the purchase on credit or after the creditor makes the required disclosure. C. Rights to the creditor to accept or reject consumer applications within 30 days. D. A cardholder's right to limited liability for unauthorized use of a credit card.

Q: The Holder in Due Course rule creates a warranty claim or defense where the product is sold "as is."

Q: "Imminently hazardous consumer products" are those that pose an immediate and unreasonable risk of death, serious illness, or severe personal injury.

Q: The Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC)'s authority is limited to cosmetics and food products.

Q: "Lemon laws" apply only to car manufacturers.

Q: The FTC requires used car dealers to display a "Buyer's Guide" on each car that tells whether the car is covered by a warranty.

Q: The Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits discrimination in credit transactions based on wealth.

Q: The Fair Debt Collection Practices Act affects only the practices of debt collection agencies that collect consumer bills for creditors other than themselves.

Q: One of the purposes of the TILA is to enable the consumer to understand all the charges made in connection with credit.

Q: The TILA fixes interest rates.

Q: The Fair Credit and Charge Card Disclosure Act requires more detailed and uniform disclosure by credit and charge card issuers at the time of application by the consumers.

Q: Under the Fair Credit Billing Act, if the credit card holder thinks that the card issuer has made an error on the statement, he/she has three years to report the error.

Q: The FTC has legal authority to assist overseas investigations to track down Internet scammers using devices such as spam and spyware.

Q: The FTC rules prohibit a telemarketer or seller from initiating an outbound call to a person whose telephone number is listed on a national "do not call" registry.