Q&A Hero

Q: Only germ cells undergo meiosis, which produces four haploid cells with 23 chromosomes each.

Q: Sympathetic nerve fibers trigger the secretion of nitric oxide, which dilates the deep arteries allowing blood to engorge the penis.

Q: Mental state does not affect metabolic rate.

Q: The first haploid stage of spermatogenesis is prophase II.

Q: When a person is active, most of the body heat is generated in the brain, heart, and endocrine glands.

Q: Myotonia of skeletal muscles is characteristic of the excitement phase and refractory period.

Q: Hypothermia may be fatal if the core body temperature reaches 37 C or lower.

Q: Which of the following is generally accepted as a secondary sex characteristic? A. The enlargement of the breasts B. The presence of testes C. The prostate gland D. The uterus E. The vagina

Q: Sexual reproduction entails the union of two gonads to form a zygote.

Q: The presence of the Y chromosome guarantees the development of male secondary sex organs.

Q: The mechanism that keeps the testes cooler than the body's core temperature is called descent of the testes.

Q: The scrotum contains the testes and spermatic cords.

Q: Sperm travels to the ampulla of the ductus deferens before reaching the spermatic cord.

Q: Sustentacular cells secrete inhibin, which regulates the rate of sperm production.

Q: Glucose in excess of the body's immediate needs is usually converted to protein.

Q: Both glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis are examples of catabolic reactions.

Q: Most body fat in overweight people is stored in the integumentary system.

Q: Consumption of excess calories during adulthood causes adipocytes to multiply.

Q: The most abundant nitrogenous waste in blood is urea, which is produced by the combination of ammonia with carbon dioxide.

Q: The absorptive state lasts about fifteen minutes after a meal.

Q: The absorptive state is regulated mainly by insulin, whereas the postabsorptive state is regulated by multiple hormones.

Q: How is the basal metabolic rate (BMR) different from the total metabolic rate (TMR)? A. The BMR includes the TMR. B. The TMR includes the BMR. C. The BMR is calculated when one is asleep. D. The BMR includes energy expenditures for muscular contractions.

Q: Which of the following is the primary source of body heat? A. Nutrient oxidation B. The sun C. Conduction D. Convection

Q: Which of the following is true regarding body temperature? A. Oral temperature is a good way to estimate core temperature. B. Adult oral temperature is typically 36.6 to 37.0 C. C. Body temperature is highest in the afternoon. D. Organs in the spinal cavity are at the shell temperature.

Q: Where would you measure the shell temperature of a patient? A. Their skin B. Their rectum C. Their abdominal cavity D. Their thoracic cavity

Q: Body weight is stable when average daily energy intake and output are equal.

Q: Gut-brain peptides are secreted by the brain and target the gastrointestinal tract.

Q: Norepinephrine stimulates cravings for carbohydrates, whereas endorphins stimulate cravings for proteins.

Q: Aerobic respiration is more efficient than anaerobic fermentation, but the latter is oxygen-independent.

Q: During periods of fasting, why is fat said to have a protein-sparing effect? A. The body oxidizes its spare protein before it depletes its fat reserves. B. The body metabolizes fats and proteins through the same metabolic pathways. C. The body must have an adequate fat intake in order to absorb and metabolize proteins. D. The body must have an adequate protein intake in order to absorb and metabolize fats. E. The body does not oxidize its proteins unless it has consumed its fat reserves first.

Q: A nude body at a room temperature of 21 C (70 F) loses most of its heat by which process? A. Evaporation B. Conduction C. Convection D. Radiation E. Forced convection

Q: Which of the following enhances loss of body heat by conduction? A. Radiation B. Evaporation C. Nonshivering thermogenesis D. Shivering thermogenesis E. Convection

Q: What is the quickest physiological mechanism for achieving moderate heat loss? A. Convection B. Cutaneous vasoconstriction C. Nonshivering thermogenesis D. Cutaneous vasodilation E. Diaphoresis

Q: Shivering warms the body because it increases the rate of what? A. Radiation B. Conduction C. ATP hydrolysis D. Vasodilation E. Glycolysis

Q: Which of the following results in heat exhaustion? A. Extreme electrolyte loss via sweat B. Denaturation of proteins in the brain tissue C. Excessive heat loss from the body D. A high rate of conduction and convection E. A high humidity that retards evaporative cooling

Q: Which of the following is not a major class of nutrients? A. Water B. Carbohydrates C. Nucleic acids D. Vitamins E. Minerals

Q: Three hours after your lunch and you are absorbing nutrients, which digestive phase are you in? A. Postabsorptive state B. Absorptive state C. Gastric state D. Vasoactive state

Q: Which of the following occurs during the absorptive state? A. Glucagon levels increase B. Blood glucose falls C. Fatty acids are oxidized for fuel D. Lipolysis is occurring E. Gluconeogenesis is suppressed

Q: Which of the following is secreted during the postabsorptive state? A. Gastrin B. Insulin C. Growth hormone D. Cholecystokinin E. Secretin

Q: Which of the following does not raise the total metabolic rate? A. Starvation B. Anxiety C. Fever D. Eating a big meal E. Pregnancy

Q: When should the basal metabolic rate be measured? A. When a person is sleeping B. When a person first rises in the morning C. When a person has just eaten a meal of no more than 2000 kcal D. When a person is in the absorptive state E. When a person is engaged in normal physical activity but not strenuous exercise

Q: Which of the following does not explain why people on weight-loss diets often lose weight quickly at first, but then more slowly over time? A. Water is lost quickly but other weight is harder to lose. B. The initial weight loss is mostly fat. C. As a diet progresses, the body produces more fat even with the same caloric intake. D. The body lowers its metabolic rate when it loses weight. E. Will power often weakens as the diet progresses.

Q: Fats should account for about __________ percent of the daily caloric intake. A. 5 B. 10 C. 30 D. 60 E. 80

Q: Glycogenesis is stimulated by __________, whereas glycogenolysis is stimulated by __________. A. insulin; glucagon and epinephrine B. insulin; aldosterone C. growth hormone; glucagon and epinephrine D. growth hormone; cortisol E. growth hormone; insulin

Q: Approximately what percentage of the energy in a glucose molecule winds up in ATP with the rest lost as body heat? A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 80 E. 98

Q: Incomplete fatty acid oxidation produces __________, which might lead to __________. A. triglycerides; new triglycerides B. ketone bodies; acidosis C. pyruvic acid; acidosis D. glycerol; alkalosis E. acetyl-CoA; acidosis

Q: How much ATP can oxidation of a 16 carbon atom fatty acid yield? A. 2 ATP B. 18 ATP C. 36 ATP D. 38 ATP E. 129 ATP

Q: Where does the highest rate of tissue protein turnover occur? A. The intestinal mucosa B. The gastric mucosa C. The hepatic sinusoids D. The splenic sinusoids E. The pancreatic islets

Q: The first step in using amino acids as fuel is to __________ them. A. digest B. deaminate C. transaminate D. aminate E. synthesize

Q: Which of the following is not a function of the liver? A. Glycogenesis B. Detoxification C. Phagocytosis D. Secretion of digestive enzymes E. Synthesis of plasma proteins

Q: Which metabolic process produces ammonia? A. Beta oxidation of a-ketoglutaric acid B. Lipolysis C. Transamination of urea D. Amination of keto acids E. Deamination of glutamic acid

Q: The liver performs all of the following functions except __________. A. converting ammonia to urea B. carrying out most beta oxidation C. producing insulin and glucagon D. synthesizing cholesterol E. synthesizing glucose from fats and amino acids

Q: Which of the following occurs during the postabsorptive state? A. Blood glucose rises B. Glycerol is used for gluconeogenesis C. Lipids are stored in adipose tissue D. Glucose is stored by glycogenesis E. Protein synthesis is active

Q: Which of the following is a final product of aerobic respiration? A. Carbon dioxide B. Pyruvic acid C. Lactic acid D. Glucose E. Oxygen

Q: What process produces most of the NADH that contributes to ATP synthesis in the cell? A. Glycolysis B. The citric acid cycle C. Anaerobic fermentation D. The mitochondrial proton pumps E. The electron transfer from FADH2

Q: Glycolysis and aerobic respiration collectively produce up to ____________ ATP per glucose, whereas anaerobic fermentation produces __________. A. 2; about the same, varying from one tissue to another B. 32; none C. 32; 2 D. 32; 36 E. 36; about the same, varying from one tissue to another

Q: Which of the following compounds yields the most ATP per molecule? A. Glucose B. Pyruvic acid C. Acetyl-CoA D. Lactic acid E. Glycogen Gradable: automatic 41. The inner membrane of a mitochondrion contains the protein __________, which harnesses the energy created by H+ flow to produce ATP by a process called __________. A. enzyme complex; reduction B. ATP synthase; oxidation C. enzyme complex; proton pumping D. ATP synthase; the chemiosmotic mechanism E. cytochrome c; reduction Gradable: automatic

Q: Most of the fat in the body is stored in what form? A. LDL B. HDL C. Cholesterol D. Triglycerides E. Fatty acids

Q: Fatty acids are catabolized through which process? A. Beta oxidation B. Ketogenesis C. Lipogenesis D. Lipolysis E. The fat-sparing effect

Q: Who would you expect to be in a state of negative nitrogen balance? A. A growing child B. A pregnant woman C. A weightlifter D. A patient with muscle atrophy E. A sprinter

Q: High-quality __________ proteins are those that provide all the essential amino acids. A. globular B. fibrous C. net D. incomplete E. complete

Q: Which vitamin deficiency is the most common worldwide? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D E. Vitamin E

Q: Minerals are __________, whereas vitamins are __________. A. micronutrients; macronutrients B. water-soluble elements; lipid-soluble compounds C. inorganic elements; organic compounds D. inessential nutrients; essential nutrients E. incomplete nutrients; complete nutrients

Q: Which of the following represents the overall reaction for aerobic respiration? A. C6H12O6 + 6 H2O 6 CO2 + 6 O2 B. C6H12O6 + 6 O2 6 CO2 + 6 H2O C. C6H12O6 + 6 CO2 6 O2 + 6 H2O D. 6 CO2 + 6 H2O C6H12O6 + 6 O2 E. 6 O2+ 6 H2O C6H12O6 + 6 CO2

Q: Which of the following is a product of glycolysis? A. Glucose B. Carbon dioxide C. Lactic acid D. Pyruvic acid E. Acetyl-CoA

Q: Which of these processes is essential for all of the rest to happen? A. Glycolysis B. Citric acid cycle C. Lactic acid reduction D. Electron transport chain E. Anaerobic fermentation

Q: __________ happens in the cytoplasm, whereas __________ happens in the mitochondrion. A. The citric acid (Krebs) cycle; mitochondrial electron-transport B. Aerobic respiration; anaerobic fermentation C. Glycolysis; the citric acid (Krebs) cycle D. Anaerobic fermentation; glycolysis E. Glycolysis; pyruvic acid reduction

Q: Which of the following is true concerning oxygen in regards to aerobic respiration? A. It transports electrons to the mitochondrion. B. It directly transfers electrons and protons to NAD+ and FAD. C. It directly receives electrons and protons from NAD+ and FAD. D. It is the only substrate of aerobic respiration. E. It is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration.

Q: What is the synthesis of glucose from amino acids called? A. Glycogenesis B. Glycogenolysis C. Glycolysis D. Gluconeogenesis E. Glycogen catabolism

Q: Which of the following constitutes the so-called "bad cholesterol?" A. Triglycerides B. Chylomicrons C. Low-density lipoproteins D. High-density lipoproteins E. Very-low-density lipoproteins

Q: Which of the following is the healthiest ratio of triglycerides? A. High HDL: low LDL B. High LDL: low HDL C. High LDL: low chylomicron D. High SFA: low HDL E. High chylomicron: low LDL

Q: Where does HDL in the body come from? A. The diet B. The liver C. The pancreas D. The small intestine E. The gallbladder

Q: Which of the following is not a function of proteins in the body? A. Muscle contraction B. Transport of blood lipids C. Maintaining blood viscosity and osmolarity D. Catalyzing enzymatic reactions E. Serving as cofactors for enzymes

Q: Where is most protein in the body found? A. In the skeletal system B. In the muscular system C. In the the cardiovascular system D. In the integumentary system E. In the lymphatic system

Q: Which of the following is not a function of gastric hydrochloric acid (HCl)? A. Activate pepsinogen to pepsin B. Activate lingual lipase C. Emulsify lipids D. Destroy ingested pathogens E. Convert Fe3+ to Fe2+

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the difference between the mucosa of the small and large intestines? A. They both have villi, but only the small intestine has microvilli. B. The small intestine has deeper intestinal crypts than the large intestine. C. The small intestine has simple columnar epithelium and the large intestine does not. D. Intestinal crypts are only found in the large intestine. E. The large intestine has larger circular folds than the small intestine.

Q: Which of the following is not a trigger for mass movements of the colon? A. The gastrocolic reflex B. The duodenocolic reflex C. Chyme filling the duodenum D. Chyme filling the stomach E. The colorectal reflex

Q: The movement of colonic contents from one puckered section to another is called __________. A. the gastrocolic reflex B. the duodenocolic reflex C. mass movement D. haustral contraction E. defecation

Q: The heat-promoting center is located in the hypothalamus, which triggers shivering.

Q: __________ are short term regulators of appetite, whereas __________ is a long-term regulator. A. Insulin and cholecystokinin (CCK); peptide YY (PYY) B. Peptide YY (PYY) and insulin; cholecystokinin (CCK) C. Peptide YY (PYY) and cholecystokinin (CCK); insulin D. Leptin and insulin; cholecystokinin (CCK) E. Leptin and insulin; peptide YY (PYY)