Q&A Hero

Q: Consider the following question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this? A) background B) behavioral C) situational D) structured

Q: Consider the following question: "Suppose you saw a co-worker who was not following standard work procedures. The co-worker claimed that the new procedure was better. What would you do?" What type of question is this? A) background B) past behavior C) situational D) job knowledge

Q: Based on interviewer assessments of attractiveness and gender, which of the following would most likely receive the highest rating for an executive level position? A) an attractive woman B) an attractive man C) an unattractive woman D) There are no such biases based on attractiveness and gender.

Q: The team holding the interviews for new auditors is behind in its recruiting quota. The team is most likely to rate the applicants ________ in this situation. A) positively B) neutrally C) unacceptable D) There is not enough information to determine.

Q: Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Human Resource Management. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview. A) serial B) panel C) sequential D) mass

Q: In a mass interview, a team of individuals interviews the candidate in a ________ fashion. A) serial B) sequential C) panel D) systematic

Q: What type of question is the following: "Imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition's biggest client. How would you proceed?" A) situational B) behavioral C) puzzle D) directive

Q: Which of the following statements is an example of a situational question? A) "Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation." B) "How have you handled ethical dilemmas in the past?" C) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?" D) "In this position, you are responsible for hiring and firing subordinates. Have you ever fired anyone before? Tell me how you handled the situation."

Q: What type of question is the following: "Can you tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment?" A) situational B) behavioral C) stress D) puzzle

Q: When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a(n) ________ interview. A) selection B) appraisal C) exit D) structured

Q: A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries. A) writing test B) work sample simulation C) interview D) reference check

Q: The ________ is considered by many to be the most important screening tool. A) telephone reference B) reference letter C) selection interview D) management assessment center

Q: Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. A) numerology B) astrology C) handwriting analysis D) polygraph output assessment

Q: Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to detect dishonest job applicants except: A) polygraph tests. B) credit checks. C) background checks. D) honesty tests.

Q: What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and acceptance of rationalizations for theft? A) personality tests B) interest inventories C) honesty tests D) graphology

Q: Which of the following is not usually verified by an employer prior to hiring a job candidate? A) legal eligibility for employment B) age C) credit ratings D) motor vehicle record

Q: Employers may conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________. A) age B) marital status C) legal eligibility D) All of the above.

Q: Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following except: A) the in basket. B) leaderless group discussion. C) tests of motor abilities. D) interviews.

Q: A ________ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's potential. A) work sampling event B) video-based situational testing C) management assessment center D) retreat

Q: ________ tests measure a person's level of introversion, stability, and motivation. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Cognitive

Q: ________ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Interest

Q: Jack is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body coordination, and stamina during the selection period at UPS. UPS is using ________ tests. A) personality B) motor and physical abilities C) achievement D) comprehensive

Q: Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called ________ tests. A) aptitude B) intelligence C) achievement D) comprehensive

Q: ________ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. A) Personality B) Achievement C) Cognitive D) Physical ability

Q: Which of the following rights do test takers have under the American Psychological Association's standard for educational and psychological tests? A) the right to confidentiality of test results B) the right to informed consent C) the right to expect that only qualified people will have access to the scores D) All of the above.

Q: Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity? A) demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test represent the tasks performed on the job B) demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks performed on the job C) demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble the work situation D) demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of criterion like job performance

Q: The final step in the validation process is to ________. A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job B) analyze the job C) relate test scores and job criteria D) cross-validate

Q: The second step in the validation process is to ________. A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job B) analyze the job C) relate test scores and job criteria D) cross-validate

Q: The first step in the validation process is to ________. A) choose the tests to measure attributes of job B) analyze the job C) administer tests D) cross-validate

Q: Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be unreliable? A) questions may not represent material B) testing conditions could vary C) the test may not predict actual performance D) All of the above are reasons for unreliable tests.

Q: Which of the following describes using an internal comparison estimate to assess reliability? A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together C) administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people D) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

Q: Which of the following describes using an equivalent-form estimate to assess reliability? A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together C) administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then compare participants' test scores for test one and test two D) different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people

Q: When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which form of reliability is likely being measured? A) retest estimate B) internal consistency C) equivalent form D) criterion validity

Q: ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyzes the degree to which responses to the items vary together. A) Equivalent form estimate B) Retest estimate C) Internal consistency D) Internal comparison estimate

Q: ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from the two tests. A) Equivalent form estimate B) Retest estimate C) Internal comparison estimate D) Criterion validity

Q: Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess reliability? A) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 B) administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together C) administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people D) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

Q: ________ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers the same test to the same people at two different points in time, and then compares the test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1. A) Equivalent form estimate B) Retest estimate C) Internal consistency D) Criterion validity

Q: If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable

Q: If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 130 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) reliable C) unreliable D) inconsistent

Q: Which of the following is an example of a reliable test? A) one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test B) one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same test taken on a different occasion C) one that yields different scores from two different people taking the test on different occasions D) one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way

Q: What is the fourth thing you should do to make reference checking more productive? A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications C) use a structured reference checking form D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

Q: Which assessment method can be conducted one-on-one or with a panel? A) cognitive ability tests B) job knowledge tests C) structured interviews D) All of the above.

Q: Which assessment method that Dial Corp. used was shown to have a high adverse impact? A) cognitive ability tests B) job knowledge tests C) structured interviews D) strength tests

Q: Which assessment method has a high content validity? A) cognitive ability tests B) personality tests C) structured interviews D) job knowledge tests

Q: What is the third thing you should do to make reference checking more productive? A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications C) use a structured reference checking form D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

Q: What is the second thing you should do to make reference checking more productive? A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications C) use a structured reference checking form D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

Q: What is the first thing you should do to make reference checking more productive? A) have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check B) get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications C) use a structured reference checking form D) use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references

Q: Which of the following is a commonly verified background area? A) legal eligibility for employment B) dates of prior employment C) military service D) All of the above.

Q: What percentage of HR managers report checking applicants' background? A) 82 B) 80 C) 75 D) 68

Q: Which of the following is recommended regarding interviewing questions? A) ask open-ended questions B) ask questions that can be answered yes or no C) put words into the applicant's mouth to try to trip them up D) B and C only

Q: Interviews should begin by ________. A) establishing rapport B) jumping right into the heart of the matter C) highlighting what the interview will be doing D) explaining the qualifications of the interviewer

Q: Which of the following is a question that disabled persons would like interviewers to ask during the interview? A) Is there any kind of setting or special equipment that would facilitate the interview process for you? B) Provide an example of how you would use technology to carry out your job duties? C) Other than technology, what other kind of support did you have in previous jobs? D) All of the above.

Q: Which of the following is not a common interviewing mistake? A) snap judgments B) negative emphasis C) attractiveness of candidate D) All of the above.

Q: A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to solicit information from a person's oral responses to oral inquiries. A) interview B) presentation C) prospectus D) invigilation

Q: The leaderless group discussion is part of the ________. A) management assessment center B) personality test battery C) Wonderlic test D) None of the above.

Q: Which of the following is not an aspect of intercultural adaptability? A) supervisory management B) perception management C) relationship management D) self management

Q: Which of the following is not a "big five" personality dimension? A) inwardness B) extroversion C) agreeableness D) conscientiousness

Q: XYZ company uses a projective personality test on James. Subsequently, James is denied employment. James can ________. A) be angry but nothing else B) claim the results were false C) claim the results violate the ADA D) B and C only

Q: Which of the following is not a type of personnel test? A) ACO B) cognitive abilities C) motor and physical abilities D) interest inventories

Q: Careful testing and screening lead to ________. A) improved performance on your own part B) screening out "undesirables" C) improved motivation among all including those who were not hired D) A and B only

Q: By some estimates, ________ percent of employees have stolen from their employers. A) 75 B) 80 C) 26 D) 49

Q: Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered ________. A) improper hiring B) negligent hiring C) appropriate depending upon the job D) negligent intent

Q: Contingent workers are used in ________ occupations. A) clerical B) engineering C) maintenance D) All of the above.

Q: Which of the following is not another term for contingent workers? A) part-time B) just-in-time C) collateral D) temporary

Q: Which of the following is not an advantage of using a private employment agency? A) It may be faster than in-house recruiting. B) It does not require internal recruitment specialists. C) Screening may not be as thorough. D) It may be better for attracting minority candidates.

Q: Who is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by private employment agencies when they place qualified individuals in jobs? A) the employer B) the employee C) the state employment commission D) there are no fees

Q: State-run employment agencies provide ________ to employers. A) recruitment services B) training programs C) reviews of employer job requirements D) All of the above.

Q: Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities except: A) reviewing the employer's job requirements. B) visiting employer work sites. C) writing job descriptions. D) Counselors perform all of the above activities.

Q: Public state employment agencies are aided and coordinated by ________________. A) private companies B) region of the country C) employers D) the U.S. Department of Labor

Q: Which of the following methods is not used to recruit outside candidates? A) advertising B) job postings C) employment agencies D) All of the above are used to recruit outside candidates.

Q: Job posting refers to all of the following except: A) publicizing the open job to employees. B) listing the job's attributes. C) listing the job's required qualifications. D) listing the number of desired applicants.

Q: Recruiting is necessary to ________. A) forecast the supply of outside candidates B) develop an applicant pool C) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates D) develop qualifications inventories

Q: When managers need to determine which employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will use ________. A) replacement charts B) qualifications inventories C) trend records D) personnel files

Q: ________ contain data on employees' performance records, educational background, and promotion recommendations. A) Computerized information systems B) Replacement charts C) Qualifications inventories D) Trend records

Q: A ________ shows graphically how two variables are related. A) trend analysis B) ratio analysis C) scatter plot D) correlation analysis

Q: Suppose a salesperson traditionally generates $500,000 in sales and the company wishes to increase sales by $4 million dollars per year. Using ratio analysis, how many new salespeople are required? A) 4 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8

Q: The process of making forecasts based on the ratio between some causal factor like sales volume and the number of employees required is called ________. A) ratio analysis B) trend analysis C) graphical analysis D) computer analysis

Q: Which term below means studying variations in a firm's employment levels over time? A) ratio analysis B) trend analysis C) graphical analysis D) All of the above.

Q: When planning for employment requirements, what must be forecasted? A) personnel needs B) supply of inside candidates C) Both A and B. D) Neither A nor B.

Q: When a company decides on how to fill top executive positions, the process is called ________. A) employment planning B) succession planning C) selection D) testing