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Q:
What is ethical is always legal.
Q:
Open door policies and anonymous "hotlines" help management identify and remedy morale problems before they get out of hand.
Q:
Poor attendance, voluntary turnover, and psychological withdrawal also reflect diminished employee engagement.
Q:
In a constructive discharge claim, the former employee argues that he or she quit, but had no choice because the employer made the situation intolerable.
Q:
Wrongful discharge occurs when an employee's dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other promises.
Q:
Employers may be held liable for illegal acts their employees commit via email.
Q:
If an employee conducts a personal phone call at work, the employer can legally eavesdrop and monitor the phone call.
Q:
Nonpunitive discipline is discipline involving oral warnings and paid "decision-making leaves of absence."
Q:
Punitive discipline focuses on gaining employee ongoing cooperation.
Q:
Distributive justice refers to the manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees.
Q:
Ethical decisions always involve normative judgments about what is right or wrong.
Q:
Using the Internet, mobile phones, or other digital technologies to harm others is a form of verbal bullying.
Q:
Incidents of bullying involve repetition.
Q:
Bullying means singling out someone to harass and mistreat them.
Q:
The purpose of discipline is to encourage employees to behave sensibly at work.
Q:
Employees who believe they were treated fairly tend to have higher employee commitment, enhanced satisfaction with the organization and their jobs, and exhibit organizational citizenship behaviors.
Q:
The principal cause of ethical compromises is based on organizational pressure to meet a schedule or some other objective.
Q:
Managers can do a lot to influence employee ethics by carefully cultivating the right norms, leadership, reward systems, and culture.
Q:
Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process by which a decision is made.
Q:
What is the sixth step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?
A) identify the next step
B) get to the point
C) describe the situation
D) listen
Q:
What is the fifth step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?
A) review the severance package
B) get to the point
C) describe the situation
D) listen
Q:
What is the fourth step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?
A) plan the interview carefully
B) get to the point
C) describe the situation
D) listen
Q:
What is the third step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?
A) plan the interview carefully
B) get to the point
C) describe the situation
D) listen
Q:
What is the second step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?
A) plan the interview carefully
B) get to the point
C) describe the situation
D) listen
Q:
What is the first step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview?
A) plan the interview carefully
B) get to the point
C) describe the situation
D) listen
Q:
To try to ensure that the termination interview will go smoothly all of the following must take place except:
A) review the severance package.
B) identify the next step.
C) describe the situation.
D) All of the above.
Q:
James wants to get rid of an obnoxious subordinate. He makes life miserable for her so that she eventually quits. She can claim that she was ________.
A) wrongfully discharged
B) constructively discharged
C) fired at will
D) Both A and B .
Q:
The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act is also known as ________.
A) COBRA
B) the plant closing law
C) ERISA
D) the privacy law
Q:
All of the following are classified as non-disciplinary separations under the plant closing law except:
A) reduced sales or profits or recession.
B) termination for cause.
C) to retire or to seek better jobs.
D) employer or employee actions.
Q:
The plant closing law requires employers with ________ or more employees to give advance notification prior to closing a facility.
A) 25
B) 50
C) 100
D) 150
Q:
The plant closing law requires that employers ________.
A) provide training for new jobs for employees affected by the plant closing
B) offer employees of one year or more comparable jobs elsewhere
C) provide a severance pay of two months or more
D) notify employees 60 days in advance of the plant closing
Q:
What law requires that employers of 100 or more employees receive 60 days' notice before closing a facility or starting a layoff of 50 people or more?
A) COBRA
B) ERISA
C) Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act
D) Electronic Communications Privacy Act
Q:
________ is a systematic process by which some one who is terminated is trained and counseled in the techniques of conducting a self-appraisal and securing a job appropriate to his or her needs and talents.
A) An exit interview
B) Outplacement counseling
C) A job counseling fair
D) Downsizing
Q:
When an employee's dismissal does not comply with the law or with the contractual agreement stated or implied by the firm via its employment application forms, employee manuals, or other promises, ________ has occurred.
A) mutiny
B) insubordination
C) wrongful discharge
D) emotional hardship
Q:
Which of the following is not an example of employee insubordination?
A) mutiny
B) eavesdropping
C) disrespect
D) public criticism of one's boss
Q:
A change in requirements of the job, one of the bases for dismissal, is defined as ________.
A) the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination
B) an employee's inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence
C) the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job
D) an employee's inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed
Q:
Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as an employee's inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed?
A) unsatisfactory performance
B) misconduct
C) lack of qualifications for job
D) changed requirements of job
Q:
Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as an employee's inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence?
A) unsatisfactory performance
B) misconduct
C) lack of qualifications for job
D) changed requirements of job
Q:
Misconduct, one of the bases for dismissal, is defined as ________.
A) the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination
B) an employee's inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence
C) the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job
D) an employee's inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed
Q:
Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination?
A) unsatisfactory performance
B) whistle blowing
C) misconduct
D) changed requirements of job
Q:
Unsatisfactory performance, one of the bases for dismissal, is defined as ________.
A) the deliberate and willful violation of the employer's rules and may include stealing and insubordination
B) an employee's inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence
C) the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job
D) an employee's inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has changed
Q:
Which of the bases for dismissal is defined as the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job?
A) unsatisfactory performance
B) misconduct
C) lack of qualifications for job
D) changed requirements of job
Q:
All of the following are reasonable bases for dismissal except:
A) unsatisfactory performance.
B) whistle blowing.
C) misconduct.
D) lack of qualifications for job.
Q:
The exception to the termination at will doctrine that would protect an employee from dismissal because he or she refused to break the law is called the ________ exception.
A) covenant of good faith
B) implied contract
C) public policy
D) whistle blower
Q:
Under the public policy exception to the termination at will doctrine, courts have held that ________.
A) discharge is wrongful when it is against an explicit, well-established law
B) even in the absence of a written document, an implied contract existed based on representations in the employee handbook
C) employers should not fire employees without good cause
D) persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job is reason for dismissal
Q:
Which of the following exceptions is not responsible for eroding the strength of the "terminate at will" doctrine?
A) public policy exception
B) public relations exception
C) statutory exception
D) All of the above have eroded the doctrine's strength.
Q:
The "terminate at will" rule guiding the employment relationship has traditionally meant that ________.
A) an employee can resign for any reason
B) an employer can fire an employee for any reason
C) contracts do not hold any real meaning in a court battle
D) Both A and B.
Q:
The most drastic step a manager can take in response to an employee offense is ________.
A) written warning
B) warning documented in employee file
C) time off without pay
D) dismissal
Q:
Which of the following is one of the types of privacy violations upheld by courts?
A) intrusion
B) publication of private matters
C) appropriation of an employee's name for commercial purposes
D) videotaping in the workplace
Q:
Which of the following is not a fair discipline guideline?
A) A set of clear rules and regulations.
B) A system of progressive penalties .
C) An appeals process should be part of the disciplinary process.
D) All of the above are part of a fair discipline process.
Q:
All of the following is a step in discipline without punishment except:
A) issue a written reminder.
B) give a paid, one-day "decision-making leave."
C) if no further incidents purge the one-day suspension from the file.
D) None of the above.
Q:
A fair discipline process is built on which of the following?
A) rules and regulations
B) a system of progressive penalties
C) an appeals process
D) All of the above.
Q:
In which organizational document are an organization's rules and regulations usually stated?
A) employee handbook
B) code of ethics
C) sexual harassment training guide
D) human resource policy manual
Q:
The purpose of ________ is to inform employees ahead of time what is and is not acceptable behavior
A) ethics
B) norms
C) discipline
D) morality
Q:
Under which of the following circumstances would an interview used for selection purposes be perceived as unfair?
A) Two-way communication is used.
B) Applicant is given an opportunity to display skills.
C) Feedback is provided.
D) A personality test is administered.
Q:
Ethical behavior starts with ________.
A) moral awareness
B) moral ineptitude
C) morality
D) systemic cognitive biases
Q:
Offering rewards for ethical behavior: _______________________.
A) can backfire
B) may actually undermine the intrinsic value of ethical behavior
C) can lead to promoting someone who got a big sale through devious means
D) All of the above.
Q:
Capital One welcomes new employees on a designated day with balloons, parties, and pep rallies. This is an example of ________.
A) providing physical support
B) using stories
C) using symbols
D) organizing ceremonies
Q:
The CEO of Southwest Airlines can sometimes be seen helping out at a gate, handling luggage, and assisting cabin attendants while in flight. This is an example of ________ to create and sustain the company's culture.
A) providing physical support
B) organizing ceremonies
C) clarifying expectations
D) using signs and symbols
Q:
With respect to rights and fairness, which one of the following is not true?
A An increasingly litigious workforce is a reason to be fair.
B) Many societies correctly rely solely on managers' sense of fairness to ensure that they do what is right by their employees
C) Laws like Title VII give employees various rights
D) Employees also have certain rights under common law.
Q:
Federal Express has a guaranteed fair treatment multistep program consisting of _______________ .
A) management review
B) officer complaint
C) organizing ceremonies
D) A and B only.
Q:
Bullying can take many forms except ________.
A) spreading rumors
B) using the Internet
C) leaving people out on purpose
D) All of the above are forms of bullying.
Q:
Bullying involves ________.
A) Imbalance of Power
B) Repetition
C) Intent to Cause Harm
D) All of the above.
Q:
The Enron debacle, "It's not the rules but what employees feel they should do that determines ethical behavior," is a description of __________________________.
A) Organizational culture
B) Organizational climate
C) Organizational ethics
D) National culture
Q:
Which of the following is not an influencing factor on ethical behavior?
A) moral disengagement
B) employees talking openly about ethics
C) managers
D) All of the above.
Q:
Procedural justice refers to the ________.
A) fairness of the process used to arrive at a decision
B) manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees
C) fairness of a decision's result
D) the degree to which managers treat employees with dignity as opposed to abuse or disrespect
Q:
Which component of justice in refers to the fairness of a process?
A) distributive justice
B) procedural justice
C) interactional justice
D) interpersonal justice
Q:
Distributive justice refers to the ________.
A) fairness of the process used to arrive at a decision
B) manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees
C) fairness of a decision's result
D) the degree to which managers treat employees with dignity as opposed to abuse or disrespect
Q:
________ justice refers to something that is good or bad, right or wrong, better or worse.
A) Distributive
B) Procedural
C) Interactional
D) Normative
Q:
________ justice refers to fair outcomes.
A) Distributive
B) Procedural
C) Interactional
D) Normative
Q:
Morality refers to the ________.
A) basic beliefs about what is right or wrong
B) principles of conduct governing an individual or group
C) standards used by the organization to decide upon proper conduct
D) standards of behavior accepted by society
Q:
Ethics refers to the ________.
A) basic beliefs about what is right or wrong
B) characteristic values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share
C) principles of conduct governing an individual or group
D) standards used by the organization to decide upon proper conduct
Q:
The principles of conduct governing an individual or a group are referred to as ________.
A) judgments
B) norms
C) ethics
D) laws
Q:
Women affected by pregnancy and childbirth are eligible for the same benefits as disabled employees.
Q:
If an employee is injured at work due to a blatant disregard for company safety policies, the company is not required to pay workers' compensation.
Q:
Workers' compensation benefits can be medical or monetary.
Q:
Employee benefits account for about one-third of wages and salaries.
Q:
About 99% of employers in the United States offer some form of health insurance coverage.
Q:
The primary advantage of broadbanding is that it provides greater flexibility into employee assignments.
Q:
Competencies are demonstrable characteristics of a person including knowledge, skills, and behaviors that enable performance.