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Q:
A(n) ________ strike results from a failure to agree on the terms of a contract.
A) unfair labor practice
B) wildcat
C) sympathy
D) economic
Q:
Which form of arbitration means that both parties are committed to accepting the arbitrator's decision?
A) interest arbitration
B) binding arbitration
C) nonbinding arbitration
D) compulsory arbitration
Q:
Arbitration means ending an impasse by ________.
A) assisting the principals in reaching an agreement
B) studying the issue in a dispute
C) making a public recommendation
D) giving a third-party the power to determine and dictate the settlement terms
Q:
Which third-party intervention is commonly used in national emergency disputes?
A) fact finding
B) mediation
C) binding arbitration
D) non-binding arbitration
Q:
Fact finding seeks to end an impasse by ________.
A) assisting the principals in reaching an agreement
B) studying the issue in a dispute and making a public recommendation
C) interpreting existing contract terms
D) communicating assessments of the likelihood of a strike
Q:
Which intervention method listed below is the most definitive of all third-party interventions?
A) fact finding
B) mediation
C) binding arbitration
D) interest arbitration
Q:
All of the following are negotiating guidelines except:
A) setting clear objectives
B) respecting the importance of face-saving for the other party
C) building a reputation for being fair but firm
D) never giving in to any demands
Q:
Mediation to ________ is used by negotiators to end an impasse.
A) assist the principals in reaching an agreement
B) study the issue in a dispute
C) determine and dictate the settlement terms
D) interpret existing contract terms
Q:
Which third-party intervention uses a neutral third party to assist the principals in reaching agreement?
A) fact finding
B) mediation
C) binding arbitration
D) non-binding arbitration
Q:
Negotiators use all of the following types of third-party interventions to overcome an impasse except:
A) binding arbitration.
B) nonbinding arbitration.
C) mediation.
D) picketing.
Q:
In collective bargaining, a(n) ________ occurs when the parties are not able to move forward toward settlement.
A) impasse
B) agreement
C) arbitration
D) association
Q:
Mandatory bargaining items are ________.
A) a part of negotiations through joint agreement of both management and union
B) forbidden by law
C) items which must be negotiated according to law
D) All of the above.
Q:
Illegal bargaining items are ________.
A) a part of negotiations through joint agreement of both management and union
B) forbidden by law
C) items which must be negotiated according to law
D) All of the above.
Q:
All of the following are examples of permissible bargaining items except:
A) indemnity bonds.
B) use of union label.
C) overtime pay.
D) cafeteria prices.
Q:
All of the following are examples of mandatory bargaining items except:
A) wages.
B) hours.
C) severance pay.
D) pension benefits of retired employees.
Q:
Permissible bargaining items are ________.
A) a part of negotiations through joint agreement of both management and union
B) forbidden by law
C) items which must be negotiated according to law
D) All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is one of the categories set out by labor law as subject to bargaining?
A) legal bargaining items
B) permissible bargaining items
C) non-mandatory bargaining items
D) benefits-related bargaining items
Q:
Which of the following is not a violation of the requirement for good faith bargaining stipulated in the National Labor Relations Act?
A) surface bargaining
B) willingness to compromise
C) dilatory tactics
D) bypassing the union representative
Q:
________ is the process of legally terminating a union's right to represent employees.
A) Union salting
B) Featherbedding
C) Certification
D) Decertification
Q:
The union becomes the employees' representative if it wins the election and winning means getting ________.
A) a majority of votes cast
B) a majority of the total workers in the bargaining unit
C) 30% of the employees to sign authorization cards
D) a majority of votes cast and a majority of electoral votes
Q:
Which of the following the supervisor can do during a unionization drive?
A) presents facts to employees
B) give opinions about whether unions will hurt
C) share personal experiences he or she had with a union
D) All of the above.
Q:
The ________ is the group of employees the union will be authorized to represent.
A) bargaining unit
B) collective unit
C) unit
D) unitary principle
Q:
A supervisor cannot do which of the following during a unionization drive?
A) threaten
B) bribe
C) promise previously unplanned pay increases or special favors
D) All of the above.
Q:
The typical union authorization card does all of the following except:
A) lets the union state they will seek better working conditions.
B) states that the union will seek to improve wages.
C) states that the employee will get better deals.
D) Authorization cards do all of the above.
Q:
What percentage of eligible employees in a bargaining unit must sign authorization cards in order for the union to petition the NLRB for an election?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 50
Q:
What is the fifth step in the union drive and election?
A) the election
B) signing authorization cards
C) the hearing
D) the campaign
Q:
What is the second step in the union drive and election?
A) initial contact
B) signing authorization cards
C) the hearing
D) the campaign
Q:
What is the fourth step in the union drive and election?
A) initial contact
B) signing authorization cards
C) the hearing
D) the campaign
Q:
What is the third step in the union drive and election?
A) initial contact
B) signing authorization cards
C) the hearing
D) the campaign
Q:
What is the first step in the union drive and election?
A) initial contact
B) signing authorization cards
C) the hearing
D) the campaign
Q:
How many steps does a drive to unionize a company have?
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 6
Q:
In which step of a union drive does the union seek employee signatures to cards that state the employee has applied to join the union?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fifth
Q:
________ is an organizing tactic by which full-time undercover union organizers are hired unknowingly by employers in order to sway union elections.
A) Union salting
B) Featherbedding
C) Espionage
D) Infiltration
Q:
What is the first step in a union drive and election that seeks to be recognized as an employee representative?
A) obtaining authorization cards
B) making initial contact
C) holding a hearing
D) holding an election
Q:
According to the Landrum-Griffin Act, national and international unions must elect officers at least once every ________ years.
A) two
B) four
C) five
D) ten
Q:
Which law sought to protect union members from possible wrongdoing on the part of their unions?
A) Norris-LaGuardia Act
B) Taft-Hartley Act
C) Wagner Act
D) Landrum-Griffin Act
Q:
Which law gave employers the right to express their views concerning union organization?
A) Norris-LaGuardia Act
B) Taft-Hartley Act
C) Gompers Act
D) Landrum-Griffin Act
Q:
The Taft-Hartley Act limited unions in all of the following ways except:
A) prohibiting unfair labor practices.
B) establishing the National Labor Review board.
C) enumerating the rights of employees as union members.
D) enumerating the rights of employers.
Q:
In what year was the Wagner Act passed?
A) 1886
B) 1932
C) 1935
D) 1947
Q:
Which of the following was not named an unfair labor practice by the Wagner Act?
A) bribing employees
B) yellow dog contracts
C) company spy systems
D) moving businesses to avoid unionization
Q:
The National Labor Relations Act was also known as the ________.
A) Taft-Hartley Act
B) Gompers Act
C) Wagner Act
D) Landrum-Griffin Act
Q:
The Wagner Act ________.
A) guaranteed each employee the right to bargain collectively free from interference, restraint, or coercion
B) made yellow dog contracts unenforceable
C) provided for secret-ballot elections for determining whether a firm's employees would unionize
D) banned unions from restraining or coercing employees from exercising their guaranteed bargaining rights
Q:
The Norris-LaGuardia Act ________.
A) guaranteed each employee the right to bargain collectively free from interference, restraint, or coercion
B) made yellow dog contracts unenforceable
C) banned unions from restraining or coercing employees from exercising their guaranteed bargaining rights
D) Both A and B.
Q:
The ________ was established by the Wagner Act to enforce its provisions.
A) National Labor Relations Committee
B) Norris-LaGuardia Group
C) National Labor Relations Board
D) Knights of Labor
Q:
The ________ banned certain unfair labor practices and provided for majority rule by secret-ballot elections to determine whether a firm's employees would unionize.
A) National Labor Relations Act
B) Norris-LaGuardia Act
C) AFL-CIO
D) Taft-Hartley Act
Q:
Prior to 1930, employers attempted to limit the influence of unions using all of the following methods except:
A) spies.
B) collective bargaining.
C) firing union agitator.
D) blacklisting union members.
Q:
A contract that allows management to require nonunion membership as a condition for employment is called a ________ contract.
A) yellow dog
B) scaredy cat
C) yellow chicken
D) black dog
Q:
The ________ guaranteed each employee the right to bargain collectively free from interference, restraint, or coercion.
A) National Labor Relations Act
B) Norris-LaGuardia Act
C) National Labor Relations Board
D) Taft-Hartley Act
Q:
The AFL-CIO is a ________.
A) voluntary federation of about 56 national and international labor unions made up of many local unions
B) local union for automobile workers in Detroit, Michigan
C) federation of companies who fight unionization of their plants and facilities
D) regional form of the National Labor Relations Board
Q:
In which human resource activity does a typical labor agreement give the union a role?
A) recruitment
B) selection
C) dismissal
D) All of the above.
Q:
Right to work laws inhibit union formation by ________.
A) outlawing unions in right to work states
B) prohibiting any form of union security
C) leaving the question of union affiliation up to each company
D) leaving the question of union security up to each company
Q:
The term ________ describes statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment.
A) termination at will
B) right to work
C) open shop
D) free labor
Q:
The ________ form of union security means that union members have preference in hiring, but the employer can hire non-union members.
A) closed shop
B) union shop
C) agency shop
D) preferential shop
Q:
The ________ form of union security means that it is up to the workers whether or not they join the union and only those who join must pay dues.
A) closed shop
B) union shop
C) agency shop
D) maintenance of membership
Q:
The ________ form of union security means that the employees who do not belong to the union still must pay union dues because the union's efforts benefit them all.
A) closed shop
B) union shop
C) agency shop
D) open shop
Q:
The agency shop form of union security means that the ________.
A) company can hire nonunion people, but they must then join the union
B) company can hire only union members
C) employees who do not belong to the union must still pay dues
D) employees can decide whether to join the union and only those who join pay dues
Q:
The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire nonunion people but those people must join the union within a prescribed period of time.
A) closed shop
B) union shop
C) agency shop
D) open shop
Q:
The union shop form of union security means that the ________.
A) company can hire nonunion people, but they must then join the union
B) company can hire only union members
C) employees who do not belong to the union must still pay dues
D) employees can decide whether to join the union and only those who join pay dues
Q:
The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire only union members.
A) closed shop
B) union shop
C) agency shop
D) maintenance of agreement
Q:
The closed shop form of union security means that the ________.
A) company can hire nonunion people, but they must then join the union
B) company can hire only union members
C) employees who do not belong to the union must still pay dues
D) employees can decide whether to join the union and only those who join pay dues
Q:
The decision to unionize may be based on ________.
A) fear of job loss
B) arbitrary management actions
C) increasing workload
D) All of the above.
Q:
About ________% of people working in the United States belong to unions.
A) 5
B) 12
C) 20
D) 45
Q:
Explain the meaning of the "terminate at will" rule that has guided the employee/employer relationship in the United States.
Q:
Define non-punitive discipline and outline the process for applying nonpunitive discipline to gain employees' acceptance of company rules.
Q:
Name the three pillars of a fair and just discipline process.
Q:
A research team analyzed the tangible and intangible costs of turnover in a call center with 31agents and four supervisors. List three examples of tangible and three examples of intangible costs associate with the functioning of the department.
Q:
Why treat employees fairly?
Q:
Discuss the ways an employer can manage dismissals effectively.
Q:
What are the things that shape ethical behavior at work? Name four.
Q:
The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act requires employers of 100 or more employees to give 60 days' notice before closing a facility.
Q:
Outplacement counseling is a systematic process by which a former employee is trained and counseled in the techniques of securing a new job appropriate to his or her needs and talents.
Q:
Discipline without punishment aims to avoid a residue of ill will and promote ongoing cooperation.
Q:
The severity of a penalty is usually a function of the type of offense and the number of times the offense has occurred.
Q:
Actions that can foster employee engagement include getting a sense of accomplishment from working at the firm
Q:
One survey indicated that companies with highly engaged employees have no higher revenue per employee.
Q:
Offering rewards for ethical behavior is a foolproof way to ensure ethicality.
Q:
Engagement refers to being psychologically involved in, connected to, and committed to getting one's jobs done.
Q:
Only about 21% of the global workforce is engaged, and almost 40% is disengaged.
Q:
Employees should be engaged by providing them with reasons and methods to satisfy customers and then rewarded for appropriate behavior.
Q:
Engagement is fostered when employees understand how their departments contribute to the company's success.